NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old following spinal fusion for scoliosis. Which of the following interventions is appropriate in the immediate post-operative period?
- A. Raise the head of the bed at least 30 degrees
- B. Encourage ambulation within 24 hours
- C. Maintain in a flat position, logrolling as needed
- D. Encourage leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the immediate post-operative period following spinal fusion for scoliosis in a 13-year-old, it is important to maintain the patient in a flat position and perform logrolling as needed. This helps prevent injury to the surgical site and ensures proper spinal alignment. Raising the head of the bed at least 30 degrees is contraindicated as it can put strain on the surgical site. Encouraging ambulation within 24 hours may be appropriate in the recovery process but not in the immediate post-operative period. Encouraging leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours may also be part of the rehabilitation process but is not a priority in the immediate post-operative period.
2. When reading a lab report, you notice that a patient's sample is described as having anisocytosis. Which of the following most accurately describes the patient's condition?
- A. The patient has an abnormal condition of skin cells.
- B. The patient's red blood cells vary in size.
- C. The patient has a high level of fat cells and is obese.
- D. The patient's cells are indicative of necrosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Anisocytosis is a term that indicates variation in the size of red blood cells. When a patient is described as having anisocytosis, it means their red blood cells exhibit differences in size. This condition can be detected in blood samples and may indicate underlying blood disorders. The other choices are incorrect: Choice A refers to a skin cell condition, Choice C relates to obesity and fat cells, and Choice D suggests necrosis, none of which are associated with anisocytosis or red blood cell abnormalities. It is important to recognize specific terms like anisocytosis in laboratory reports to understand the potential implications for the patient's health.
3. A 24-year-old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Based on the presenting signs and symptoms, which of the following would you most likely suspect?
- A. Diverticulosis
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Irritable bowel syndrome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypercalcemia. In this case, the patient's history of myeloma, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria suggests hypercalcemia. Elevated calcium levels can lead to polyuria, severe abdominal pain, and confusion. Diverticulosis (Choice A), characterized by small pouches in the colon wall, typically does not present with confusion and polyuria. Hypocalcemia (Choice C) is unlikely given the symptoms described. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice D) does not typically cause confusion and polyuria as seen in hypercalcemia.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?
- A. Yersinia pestis
- B. Helicobacter pylori
- C. Vibrio cholerae
- D. Haemophilus aegyptius
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Haemophilus aegyptius. Haemophilus influenzae biogroup aegyptius (Hae) is a causative agent of acute and often purulent conjunctivitis, more commonly known as pink eye. Yersinia pestis, Helicobacter pylori, and Vibrio cholerae are not associated with conjunctivitis. Yersinia pestis causes the plague, Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastric ulcers, and Vibrio cholerae causes cholera.
5. A nurse frequently treats patients in the 72-hour period after a stroke has occurred. The nurse would be most concerned about which of these assessment findings?
- A. INR is 3 seconds long
- B. Heart rate is 110 beats per minute
- C. Intracranial Pressure is 22 mmHg
- D. Blood pressure is 140/80
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse would be most concerned about the assessment finding of an Intracranial Pressure (ICP) reading of 22 mmHg in a patient 72 hours post-stroke. Elevated ICP can indicate increased risk of edema and further brain damage. A target ICP should ideally be maintained at less than or equal to 15-20 mmHg. While the other options may also be important to monitor, an elevated ICP poses a more immediate threat to the patient's neurological status and requires prompt attention.
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