NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. The nurse is caring for an infant with cryptorchidism. The nurse anticipates that the most likely diagnostic study to be prescribed would be the one that assesses which item?
- A. Babinski reflex
- B. DNA synthesis
- C. Urinary function
- D. Chromosomal analysis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testes, may be caused by hormonal deficiency, intrinsic testicular abnormality, or a structural problem. Diagnostic studies for cryptorchidism typically involve assessing urinary function because the kidneys and testes originate from the same embryonic tissue. The Babinski reflex is a test for neurological function and is not relevant to evaluating cryptorchidism. DNA synthesis and chromosomal analysis are not commonly used diagnostic tests for cryptorchidism, as they are unrelated to the disorder's etiology or presentation.
2. Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?
- A. Acute renal failure (ARF)
- B. Intermittent renal failure (IRF)
- C. Chronic renal failure (CRF)
- D. Reversible renal failure (RRF)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.
3. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage?
- A. A client who is 9 weeks pregnant
- B. A client with a femur fracture
- C. A morbidly obese client
- D. A client with hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is contraindicated in morbidly obese clients due to several reasons. Excess body fat in morbidly obese individuals makes it challenging to locate essential landmarks required for the procedure. Additionally, the equipment utilized for the lavage may not be sized appropriately to accommodate an obese individual. Furthermore, morbid obesity places undue stress on the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, increasing the risk of complications when administering anesthetic agents during the procedure. Therefore, performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage on a morbidly obese client is not recommended. Choice A, a client who is 9 weeks pregnant, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Pregnancy status alone does not preclude the procedure unless there are specific maternal or fetal concerns. Choice B, a client with a femur fracture, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. The presence of a femur fracture does not typically affect the ability to perform this diagnostic procedure. Choice D, a client with hypertension, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Hypertension, while a consideration for anesthesia and surgery, does not directly impact the feasibility of performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage.
4. The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old following spinal fusion for scoliosis. Which of the following interventions is appropriate in the immediate post-operative period?
- A. Raise the head of the bed at least 30 degrees
- B. Encourage ambulation within 24 hours
- C. Maintain in a flat position, logrolling as needed
- D. Encourage leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the immediate post-operative period following spinal fusion for scoliosis in a 13-year-old, it is important to maintain the patient in a flat position and perform logrolling as needed. This helps prevent injury to the surgical site and ensures proper spinal alignment. Raising the head of the bed at least 30 degrees is contraindicated as it can put strain on the surgical site. Encouraging ambulation within 24 hours may be appropriate in the recovery process but not in the immediate post-operative period. Encouraging leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours may also be part of the rehabilitation process but is not a priority in the immediate post-operative period.
5. When taking the blood pressure (BP) on the right arm of a patient with severe acute pancreatitis, the nurse notices carpal spasms of the patient's right hand. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Ask the patient about any arm pain.
- B. Retake the patient's blood pressure.
- C. Check the calcium level in the chart.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse observed carpal spasms in the patient's right hand, indicating a positive Trousseau's sign, which is associated with hypocalcemia. Patients with acute pancreatitis are at risk for hypocalcemia, hence the nurse should promptly check the calcium level in the chart to assess the patient's condition. Notifying the healthcare provider comes after confirming the calcium level. There is no indication to ask about arm pain or to retake the blood pressure, as the primary concern is addressing the potential hypocalcemia.
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