Nursing Elites

1. Based on Mr. C's assessment, which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate?

• A. Elevate the lower extremities to 45 degrees to promote venous return
• B. Place Mr. C in the Trendelenburg position
• C. Administer total parenteral nutrition
• D. Monitor urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the context of Mr. C's assessment, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to monitor urine output. A client in hypovolemic shock may experience decreased urine output due to poor kidney perfusion. By monitoring urine output, the nurse can assess renal function and fluid status. Administering total parenteral nutrition (Choice C) is not indicated based on the information provided, as the priority is to stabilize the client's condition. Elevating the lower extremities (Choice A) may be helpful in some cases but is not the priority in this situation. Placing Mr. C in the Trendelenburg position (Choice B) is contraindicated in hypovolemic shock as it can worsen venous return and compromise cardiac output.

2. The nurse palpates the posterior chest while the patient says 99 and notes absent fremitus. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Auscultate anterior and posterior breath sounds bilaterally
• B. Encourage the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe
• C. Review the chest x-ray report for evidence of pneumonia
• D. Palpate the anterior chest and observe for barrel chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess for tactile fremitus, the nurse should use the palms of the hands to assess for vibration when the patient repeats a word or phrase such as '99'. After noting absent fremitus, the nurse should then auscultate the lungs to assess for the presence or absence of breath sounds. Absent fremitus may be noted with conditions like pneumothorax or atelectasis. The vibration is increased in conditions such as pneumonia, lung tumors, thick bronchial secretions, and pleural effusion. Encouraging the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe is an appropriate intervention for atelectasis, but assessing breath sounds takes priority. Fremitus is decreased if the hand is farther from the lung or the lung is hyperinflated (barrel chest). Palpating the anterior chest for fremitus is less effective due to the presence of large muscles and breast tissue, making auscultation a more appropriate next step.

3. A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/minute, blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy.
• B. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.
• C. Prepare the patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT).
• D. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient presents with symptoms indicative of a pulmonary embolism (PE), such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Elevating the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position is the priority to improve ventilation and gas exchange. This intervention should be initiated promptly to optimize oxygenation. Subsequent actions, such as notifying the healthcare provider, preparing for a spiral CT scan, and administering anticoagulant therapy, can follow after the patient's position is adjusted. The spiral CT scan is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of PE, and anticoagulant therapy is initiated upon confirmation of the diagnosis by the healthcare provider. Therefore, the immediate focus is on improving the patient's respiratory status by elevating the head of the bed.

4. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

• A. Slow, deep respirations
• B. Stridor
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Air hunger

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.

5. The nurse monitors a patient after chest tube placement for a hemopneumothorax. The nurse is most concerned if which assessment finding is observed?

• A. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber
• B. 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber
• C. Complaint of pain with each deep inspiration
• D. Subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned if 400 mL of blood is observed in the collection chamber as it may indicate the patient is at risk of developing hypovolemic shock. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber is expected initially after chest tube placement for a pneumothorax. While pain with deep inspiration should be treated, it is not as urgent as the risk of continued hemorrhage. Subcutaneous emphysema is not uncommon in a patient with pneumothorax and is usually harmless. However, a large amount of blood in the collection chamber is a more critical finding that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.

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