NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. Which consideration is the most accurate when applying the principles of mental health?
- A. Emotionally ill individuals may initially reject psychological support from family or others.
- B. People with emotional illnesses may experience challenges in problem-solving.
- C. Mental illness is not solely characterized by signs and symptoms of socially inappropriate behavior.
- D. Emotional health is promoted when there is a sense of mastery of self and the environment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Emotional health is enhanced when an individual feels a sense of control over themselves and their surroundings, fostering security, reducing anxiety, and promoting optimal functioning. While some emotionally ill individuals may reject help initially, many are in distress and acknowledge the need for psychological support. Some seek care based on positive past experiences or the attention received. Additionally, individuals with excellent cognitive function may face challenges in problem-solving due to emotional or psychological barriers. Not all individuals with mental illness exhibit socially inappropriate behavior; it is a misconception that mental illness is solely characterized by such signs and symptoms. Therefore, the most accurate consideration among the choices is that emotional health thrives when there is a feeling of mastery over oneself and the environment.
2. What does the E in the acronym DELIRIUM represent in causes contributing to delirium?
- A. EEG
- B. EKG
- C. Electrolytes
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The E in the acronym DELIRIUM stands for Electrolytes. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to delirium. The other letters in the acronym represent: D = Dementia; L = Lung, liver, heart, kidney, brain; I = Infection; R = Rx Drugs; I = Injury, Pain, Stress; U = Unfamiliar environment; M = Metabolic. It is crucial to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium is often reversible with treatment of underlying causes. Dementia should only be considered after ruling out delirium, as addressing the contributing factors may alleviate the delirium state.
3. A 37-year-old woman with a history of fibroids and menorrhagia that have not been responsive to hormonal treatments is admitted with severe menorrhagia resulting in anemia. She also has depression and pelvic pain. She is crying and states, 'I don't know what to do"?my primary health care provider is recommending a hysterectomy, but I haven't had children yet!' Which response would the nurse provide?
- A. 'There are so many children up for adoption, looking for a mother.'
- B. 'This must feel so difficult for you. Children are really important to you?'
- C. This must feel so difficult for you. Although Children should not be important to you.'
- D. Believe me when I tell you that kids are so difficult to raise"?you're better off without them.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's feelings and provide an open-ended question to encourage further expression. By expressing empathy and understanding, the nurse can create a supportive environment for the client. This approach allows the client to explore her emotions and concerns freely. Option A, suggesting adoption, may come across as dismissive of the client's current emotional state and may not address her immediate needs. Option D is insensitive and dismissive of the client's feelings and desires regarding having children. It is important to avoid making assumptions or judgments about the client's situation. Option C is a duplicate of Option B, and while it shows empathy, it lacks variety in communication, which may limit the depth of the conversation and the nurse's understanding of the client's needs.
4. While planning care for a 2-year-old hospitalized child, which situation would the nurse most likely expect to affect the behavior?
- A. Strange bed and surroundings.
- B. Separation from parents.
- C. Presence of other toddlers.
- D. Unfamiliar toys and games.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Separation from parents.' Separation anxiety is most evident from 6 months to 30 months of age. It is the greatest stress imposed on a toddler by hospitalization. If separation is avoided, young children have a tremendous capacity to withstand other stress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while strange bed and surroundings, presence of other toddlers, and unfamiliar toys and games may contribute to some level of stress or discomfort, the separation from parents is the primary factor affecting the behavior of a 2-year-old hospitalized child.
5. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
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