all of the following are essential components of supervision except
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale

1. All of the following are essential components of supervision EXCEPT:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Supervision in nursing requires key components to ensure effective management. Tasks to be delegated or supervised must align with the nurse's scope of practice to maintain safety and quality care. Adequate time for staff assignment development is essential for efficient workflow. Policies governing nursing practice provide a framework for safe and standardized care. However, the statement 'The necessary tasks require repeated assessments' is not an essential component of supervision. Tasks should be clear, achievable, and not necessitate repeated assessments, as this would impede delegation and efficient completion. Repeated assessments may indicate unclear task delegation or inadequate initial assessment, which should be avoided in effective supervision.

2. Jaime has a diagnosis of schizophrenia with negative symptoms. In planning care for the client, Nurse Brienne would anticipate a problem with:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as Jaime, a common problem is avolition, which is the lack of motivation for activities. These 'negative' symptoms are characterized by inexpressive faces, blank looks, monotone speech, few gestures, and a seeming lack of interest in the world. Patients may also experience an inability to feel pleasure or act spontaneously. It is crucial to differentiate between the lack of expression and lack of feeling, as well as between lack of will and lack of activity. Auditory hallucinations (choice A) are positive symptoms, not typically associated with negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Bizarre behaviors (choice B) are more aligned with positive symptoms like disorganized behavior. Ideas of reference (choice C) involve incorrectly interpreting casual incidents and external events as having direct reference to oneself, which is not directly related to motivation for activities seen in negative symptoms.

3. A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These clots can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice A) is less likely in a young patient without a significant history of atherosclerosis. Anxiety attacks (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this context. Congestive heart failure (Choice D) is less probable given the acute onset of symptoms and absence of typical signs like peripheral edema in this case.

4. As you are assessing the fetus during labor, you are determining the fetal lie, presentation, attitude, station, and position. Your client asks you what all these assessments are. Among other things, how should you respond to the mother?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines. Fetal station is measured in terms of the number of centimeters above or below the mother's ischial spines. When the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters above the ischial spines, the fetal station is -1 to -5, and when the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters below the level of the maternal ischial spines, the fetal station is +1 to +5. Choices A, B, and C provide incorrect information about fetal lie, presentation, and attitude, respectively, which do not align with the definitions of these terms in obstetrics.

5. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

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