which of the following is the most appropriate example of anticipatory guidance for a 16 year old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. Which of the following is the most appropriate example of anticipatory guidance for a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture?

Correct answer: Driving and staying safe

Rationale: Anticipatory guidance is an educational process that provides information important to a client's situation. When considering a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture, the most suitable anticipatory guidance would be regarding driving and staying safe. This guidance is crucial as it is age-appropriate and relevant to preventing future injuries. Choices A, C, and D are less pertinent in this scenario. Changes associated with puberty, health hazards of smoking, and social media influences may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a 16-year-old with an ankle fracture.

2. Jaime has a diagnosis of schizophrenia with negative symptoms. In planning care for the client, Nurse Brienne would anticipate a problem with:

Correct answer: Motivation for activities

Rationale: In clients with negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as Jaime, a common problem is avolition, which is the lack of motivation for activities. These 'negative' symptoms are characterized by inexpressive faces, blank looks, monotone speech, few gestures, and a seeming lack of interest in the world. Patients may also experience an inability to feel pleasure or act spontaneously. It is crucial to differentiate between the lack of expression and lack of feeling, as well as between lack of will and lack of activity. Auditory hallucinations (choice A) are positive symptoms, not typically associated with negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Bizarre behaviors (choice B) are more aligned with positive symptoms like disorganized behavior. Ideas of reference (choice C) involve incorrectly interpreting casual incidents and external events as having direct reference to oneself, which is not directly related to motivation for activities seen in negative symptoms.

3. A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?

Correct answer: C: Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis in this situation is 'Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage.' Post-partum hemorrhage can lead to excessive bleeding, putting the client at risk of fluid volume deficit due to the loss of blood volume. This diagnosis is most appropriate as it addresses the immediate concern of fluid loss. 'Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss' (Choice A) is incorrect as the priority in this case is addressing the physical issue of fluid volume deficit rather than knowledge deficit. 'Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect' (Choice B) is not relevant to the situation described. 'Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery' (Choice D) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this context where the primary concern is fluid volume deficit due to post-partum hemorrhage.

4. What is involved in obtaining informed consent?

Correct answer: An explanation of the reasons for the procedure

Rationale: Informed consent involves providing the client with an explanation of the reasons for the procedure, the potential risks, benefits, and available alternatives. It is essential for the healthcare provider to ensure that the client understands the information provided before agreeing to the procedure. While obtaining a signature on a consent form is part of the process, it is not the sole indicator of informed consent. Option C, which mentions liability statements, is incorrect as informed consent focuses on ensuring the client understands the procedure, not on affirming liability. Therefore, the correct answer is the explanation of the reasons for the procedure.

5. The priority goal for a family who practices Chinese medicine would be to:

Correct answer: Restore yin and yang

Rationale: In Chinese medicine, the concept of yin and yang represents the balance of opposing forces in the body. When there is an imbalance between yin and yang, it can result in illness. Therefore, the priority goal for a family practicing Chinese medicine would be to restore the harmony and balance between yin and yang. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority goal in Chinese medicine. While achieving harmony, maintaining a balance of energy, and respecting life are important aspects of Chinese medicine, the fundamental principle revolves around maintaining the equilibrium of yin and yang for optimal health.

Similar Questions

Which of the following is an example of a breach of a client's right to privacy?
Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?
An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
Mr. Freeman has difficulty getting out of bed. The nurse should encourage Mr. Freeman to ______________.
Which of the following is an example of whistle-blowing?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses