which of the following is the most appropriate example of anticipatory guidance for a 16 year old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. Which of the following is the most appropriate example of anticipatory guidance for a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticipatory guidance is an educational process that provides information important to a client's situation. When considering a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture, the most suitable anticipatory guidance would be regarding driving and staying safe. This guidance is crucial as it is age-appropriate and relevant to preventing future injuries. Choices A, C, and D are less pertinent in this scenario. Changes associated with puberty, health hazards of smoking, and social media influences may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a 16-year-old with an ankle fracture.

2. A nurse is asked to perform a task that she believes is outside her scope of practice. What is the appropriate response to this issue?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When faced with a task that a nurse believes may be beyond their scope of practice, it is essential to refer to the state's specific scope of practice standards for nurses. This step is crucial as these standards can vary between states, providing clarity on what tasks are permissible. By reviewing these standards, the nurse can determine if the task falls within their scope of practice. Contacting the state board of nursing licensure to report the offense (Choice A) is premature and should only be considered if there is a serious violation after reviewing the scope of practice. Asking another nurse to perform the task (Choice C) does not address the issue of clarifying the scope of practice. Contacting the house supervisor (Choice D) may be necessary if the nurse cannot determine the appropriateness of the task based on the scope of practice standards.

3. A client asks a nurse, 'Do you think I should move back home after this procedure?' and the nurse responds by saying, 'Do you think you should move back home?' What type of therapeutic communication is the nurse representing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is demonstrating the therapeutic communication technique of reflection. In this scenario, the nurse is redirecting the question back to the client, encouraging them to explore their thoughts and feelings about the situation. Reflection involves restating a statement or question in a way that prompts the client to consider their own answers, fostering self-awareness and insight. Observation involves stating facts, summarizing involves condensing information, and validating involves confirming the client's feelings or experiences, none of which are demonstrated in this interaction.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.

5. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

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