Nursing Elites

1. Teresa is an 84-year-old with stage 4 ovarian cancer who has been admitted for a bowel obstruction. She recently stated that she has decided that she doesn't want any further aggressive care and is requesting to be placed under hospice care. Her husband and daughter are supportive of her decision. She spoke with her oncologist about it, and he stated that he did not agree and wrote orders on her chart for chemotherapy. What would be the best first response to this situation?

• A. Give the patient a list of other oncologists
• B. Tell the family to report the doctor to the state quality board
• C. Notify the doctor that the patient refuses the chemotherapy
• D. Give the patient hospice information

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient has the right to refuse any treatment, and the doctor should be notified that the orders on the chart cannot be performed, with appropriate documentation. In this situation, the best first response is to notify the doctor that the patient refuses the chemotherapy. This step ensures that the patient's wishes are respected and that inappropriate treatments are not administered. It also opens up a dialogue with the oncologist, giving him the opportunity to understand the patient's perspective and potentially support her decision. Providing hospice information is a good follow-up step after addressing the immediate issue of refusing chemotherapy, as it allows the patient to initiate her own hospice evaluation if desired. Giving the patient a list of other oncologists or telling the family to report the doctor to the state quality board are not appropriate initial responses and may not align with the patient's wishes or autonomy.

2. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?

• A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
• B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
• C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
• D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.

3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

• A. Pulmonary embolectomy
• B. Vena caval interruption
• C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
• D. Thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

4. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

5. How do technological advances relate to HIPAA?

• A. Technology can expose us to HIPAA violations.
• B. Computers facilitate information sharing.
• C. Computer screens should be visible only to authorized personnel.
• D. Technology enhances HIPAA confidentiality.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Technology can expose us to HIPAA violations. For instance, leaving a computer screen unattended and visible to unauthorized individuals can result in breaches of patient confidentiality, leading to HIPAA violations. While computers can indeed aid in sharing information, this is not directly related to HIPAA compliance. Ensuring that computer screens are only visible to authorized personnel is a good practice, but it does not address the broader risks and challenges posed by technological advancements in maintaining HIPAA compliance. Therefore, the correct answer is that technology can expose us to HIPAA violations.

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