Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's chart and notices that the patient suffers from Lyme disease. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

• A. Borrelia burgdorferi
• B. Streptococcus pyogenes
• C. Bacillus anthracis
• D. Enterococcus faecalis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lyme disease, the most common vector-borne disease in the United States, is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with strep throat and other infections, not Lyme disease. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, a separate infectious disease. Enterococcus faecalis is more commonly linked to urinary tract infections and other healthcare-associated infections, not Lyme disease.

2. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?

• A. The patient reports no chest pain.
• B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
• C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
• D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.

3. A client has no pulse or respirations. After calling for help, what should the nurse's first action be?

• A. Start a peripheral IV
• B. Initiate high-quality chest compressions
• C. Establish an airway
• D. Obtain the crash cart

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client has no pulse or respirations, the initial action recommended by the American Heart Association is to start high-quality chest compressions. This action helps maintain blood flow to vital organs such as the brain until normal heart rhythm is restored. Starting CPR with chest compressions before checking the airway and providing rescue breaths is crucial to improve outcomes. While establishing an airway and obtaining a crash cart are important steps in resuscitation, initiating chest compressions takes precedence to ensure oxygenated blood circulation. Starting with chest compressions applies to adults, children, and infants but not newborns.

4. A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a healthcare provider's order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented?

• A. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates.
• B. TB medications have been taken for 6 months.
• C. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm.
• D. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative. Negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. This finding is crucial for discontinuing airborne precautions. Choice A is incorrect because chest x-rays do not determine the presence of active TB for transmission precautions. Choice B is not directly related to the infectiousness of TB; completing a 6-month course of medication is important for treatment but does not confirm the absence of active disease or infectiousness. Choice C is not relevant to assessing infectiousness; Mantoux testing measures exposure to TB but does not confirm the absence of active infection or infectiousness.

5. A 36-year-old male patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing.
• B. Administer the HCV vaccine and immune globulin.
• C. Teach the patient about ribavirin (Rebetol) treatment.
• D. Explain that the infection will resolve over a few months.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing. Genotyping of HCV is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment regimen and guiding therapy decisions. Most patients with acute HCV infection progress to the chronic stage, so it is incorrect to inform the patient that the infection will resolve in a few months. There is no vaccine or immune globulin available for HCV, and ribavirin (Rebetol) is typically used for chronic HCV infection. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize genotyping to assist in treatment planning.

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