Nursing Elites

1. The nurse assesses the chest of a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which finding would the nurse expect?

• A. Increased tactile fremitus
• B. Dry, nonproductive cough
• C. Hyperresonance to percussion
• D. A grating sound on auscultation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased tactile fremitus over the area of pulmonary consolidation is expected with bacterial pneumonias, such as pneumococcal pneumonia. Dullness to percussion would be expected due to consolidation. Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with a loose, productive cough rather than a dry, nonproductive cough. Hyperresonance to percussion is not a typical finding in pneumonia and may suggest conditions like emphysema. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles and wheezes are typical in pneumonia, but a grating sound on auscultation is more representative of a pleural friction rub rather than pneumonia.

2. Which of the following factors may alter the level of consciousness in a patient?

• A. Alcohol
• B. Electrolytes
• C. Infection
• D. All of the above may cause altered level of consciousness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Various factors can lead to altered levels of consciousness in a patient. Alcohol consumption can depress the central nervous system and cause changes in consciousness. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia or hypernatremia, can disrupt brain function and affect consciousness. Infections, especially those affecting the brain like encephalitis, can also lead to alterations in consciousness. Therefore, all of the choices provided - Alcohol, Electrolytes, and Infection - can potentially cause changes in the level of consciousness. Remember the acronym AEIOU-TIPPS to recall common causes of decreased level of consciousness, including Alcohol, Electrolytes, and Infection, among others.

3. Which of the following complaints is characteristic of a patient with Bell's Palsy?

• A. Paralysis of the right or left arm
• B. Malfunction of a certain cranial nerve
• C. A sub-condition of Cerebral Palsy
• D. A side effect of a stroke

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bell's Palsy is characterized by the dysfunction of the Facial nerve, which is cranial nerve VII. This dysfunction leads to facial muscle weakness or paralysis, not affecting the arms. Choice A is incorrect as Bell's Palsy specifically involves facial muscles, not the arms. Choice C is incorrect as it incorrectly associates Bell's Palsy with a different condition, Cerebral Palsy. Choice D is incorrect as Bell's Palsy is not a side effect of a stroke but rather a distinct condition with its own etiology.

4. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B?

• A. Advise limiting alcohol intake to 1 drink daily
• B. Schedule for liver cancer screening every 6 months
• C. Initiate administration of the hepatitis C vaccine series
• D. Monitor anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels annually

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B are at a higher risk for developing liver cancer. Therefore, it is essential to schedule them for liver cancer screening every 6 to 12 months to detect any potential malignancies at an early stage. Advising patients to limit alcohol intake is crucial as alcohol can exacerbate liver damage; thus, patients with chronic hepatitis B are advised to completely avoid alcohol. Administering the hepatitis C vaccine is irrelevant for a patient diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B since it is a different virus. Monitoring anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels annually is not necessary as the presence of anti-HBs indicates a past hepatitis B infection or vaccination, and it does not require regular monitoring.

5. The healthcare provider is managing a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour.
• B. Periodic crying and irritability.
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier.
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical finding that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding raises concerns about possible hyperkalemia, which can result from continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. The management of acute hyperkalemia involves interventions such as administering calcium to protect the heart, shifting potassium into cells, and enhancing potassium elimination from the body. The other choices do not indicate an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. Three episodes of vomiting in 1 hour can be concerning but may not be as immediately critical as the risk of hyperkalemia. Periodic crying and irritability are common in infants and may not indicate a severe complication. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier is a normal behavior in infants and does not signal a medical emergency.

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