Nursing Elites

1. The nurse administers prescribed therapies for a patient with cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure. Which assessment would best evaluate the effectiveness of the therapies?

• A. Observe for distended neck veins.
• B. Auscultate for crackles in the lungs.
• C. Palpate for heaves or thrills over the heart.
• D. Review hemoglobin and hematocrit values.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of therapies for cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure, observing for distended neck veins would be the most appropriate assessment. Cor pulmonale is characterized by right ventricular failure due to pulmonary hypertension, leading to clinical manifestations such as peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and right upper-quadrant abdominal tenderness. These signs indicate increased central venous pressure and right heart strain, which can be assessed by observing for distended neck veins. Auscultating for crackles in the lungs is more indicative of left-sided heart failure rather than right-sided heart failure. Heaves or thrills over the heart are not typically associated with cor pulmonale. Reviewing hemoglobin and hematocrit values may show elevations due to chronic hypoxemia and polycythemia in cor pulmonale, but these values alone do not directly evaluate the immediate effectiveness of the prescribed therapies on the patient's condition.

2. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority?

• A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness
• B. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness
• C. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions
• D. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.' While all the nursing diagnoses are relevant to the patient's condition, the priority should be given to impaired gas exchange due to the patient's low oxygen saturation level of 88%. This indicates a significant risk of hypoxia for all body tissues unless the gas exchange is improved. Addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. Hyperthermia, impaired transfer ability, and ineffective airway clearance are important concerns but addressing gas exchange takes precedence in this scenario.

3. A patient with Meningitis is being treated with Vancomycin intravenously 3 times per day. The nurse notes that the urine output during the last 8 hours was 200mL. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Check the patient's last BUN levels
• B. Ask the patient to increase their fluid intake
• C. Ask the physician to order a diuretic
• D. Notify the physician of this finding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vancomycin is a nephrotoxic drug and can cause impaired renal perfusion, which would lead to decreased urine output. This is a serious adverse effect that should be promptly reported to the physician. Checking the patient's last BUN levels (Choice A) may provide additional information but does not address the urgency of the situation. Asking the patient to increase fluid intake (Choice B) may not be appropriate if the cause is related to Vancomycin toxicity. Ordering a diuretic (Choice C) without physician evaluation can exacerbate the issue, making notifying the physician (Choice D) the most critical action to take.

4. The patient in the emergency room has a history of alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and abruptly stopped taking Xanax about 24 hours ago. He presents with visible tremors, pacing, fear, impaired concentration, and memory. Which intervention takes priority?

• A. Have the patient lie down on a stretcher with bed rails raised
• B. Offer the patient a cup of water and a small amount of food
• C. Reassure the patient about his well-being
• D. Inform the physician about the patient's Xanax withdrawal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 1-4 day period after Xanax withdrawal is critical as it poses the highest risk of life-threatening seizures. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden cessation can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. The patient's visible tremors, fear, pacing, and cognitive impairment indicate a state of heightened distress and potential seizure risk. Placing the patient on a stretcher with raised bed rails is essential for seizure precautions, ensuring safety and preventing injury during a potential seizure. Offering water and food, reassuring the patient, or informing the physician about Xanax withdrawal are not immediate priorities compared to managing the risk of seizures in this high-risk situation.

5. A newborn has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. In discussing the condition and treatment with the family, the nurse should emphasize:

• A. They can expect the child will be mentally retarded.
• B. Administration of thyroid hormone will prevent problems.
• C. This rare problem is always hereditary.
• D. Physical growth/development will be delayed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is administration of thyroid hormone will prevent problems. In newborns diagnosed with hypothyroidism, early identification and continuous treatment with hormone replacement can correct this condition effectively. Choice A is incorrect as it uses outdated and inappropriate language (mentally retarded) and does not reflect modern understanding of conditions. Choice C is incorrect because while some cases of hypothyroidism can be hereditary, it is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect as physical growth and development can be affected by hypothyroidism, but the critical emphasis should be on the importance of administering thyroid hormone to prevent complications and support normal growth and development.

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