NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. The nurse administers prescribed therapies for a patient with cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure. Which assessment would best evaluate the effectiveness of the therapies?
- A. Observe for distended neck veins.
- B. Auscultate for crackles in the lungs.
- C. Palpate for heaves or thrills over the heart.
- D. Review hemoglobin and hematocrit values.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of therapies for cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure, observing for distended neck veins would be the most appropriate assessment. Cor pulmonale is characterized by right ventricular failure due to pulmonary hypertension, leading to clinical manifestations such as peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and right upper-quadrant abdominal tenderness. These signs indicate increased central venous pressure and right heart strain, which can be assessed by observing for distended neck veins. Auscultating for crackles in the lungs is more indicative of left-sided heart failure rather than right-sided heart failure. Heaves or thrills over the heart are not typically associated with cor pulmonale. Reviewing hemoglobin and hematocrit values may show elevations due to chronic hypoxemia and polycythemia in cor pulmonale, but these values alone do not directly evaluate the immediate effectiveness of the prescribed therapies on the patient's condition.
2. While caring for the client during the first hour after delivery, the nurse determines that the uterus is boggy and there is vaginal bleeding. What should be the nurse's first action?
- A. Check vital signs
- B. Massage the fundus
- C. Offer a bedpan
- D. Check for perineal lacerations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Massage the fundus. The nurse's first action should be to massage the fundus until it is firm as uterine atony is the primary cause of bleeding in the first hour after delivery. Checking vital signs, offering a bedpan, or checking for perineal lacerations are important assessments but addressing the boggy uterus and vaginal bleeding due to uterine atony takes precedence in this situation.
3. A patient with Glaucoma is verbalizing his daily medication routine to the nurse. He states he has two different eye drop medications, both every twelve hours. He washes his hands, instills the drops, closes his eyes gently, and presses his finger to the corner of his eye nearest his nose. After waiting 1 minute with his eyes closed, he instills the other medication in the same way. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. ''You should wait more than 1 minute between different medications.''
- B. ''Your routine is very good! Can you demonstrate it for me?''
- C. ''It is actually not the best practice to close your eyes after instilling eye drops.''
- D. ''You should actually be pressing your finger in the other corner of the eye.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is recommended to wait 10-15 minutes between different eye drop medications to give them time to absorb and avoid one medication washing another one out. Choice A is the correct response as the patient should wait more than 1 minute between administering different eye drop medications. Choice B is incorrect as the routine described by the patient needs improvement. Choice C is inaccurate as closing the eyes after instilling eye drops is a best practice to ensure proper absorption. Choice D is incorrect as pressing the finger to the corner of the eye nearest the nose is the correct technique.
4. The nurse is caring for a client in the late stages of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (A.L.S.). Which finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Confusion
- B. Loss of half of the visual field
- C. Shallow respirations
- D. Tonic-clonic seizures
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the late stages of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (A.L.S.), respiratory muscles are affected, leading to shallow respirations. Confusion is not typically associated with A.L.S. Loss of half of the visual field suggests a neurological issue unrelated to A.L.S., while tonic-clonic seizures are not commonly seen in A.L.S. patients. Shallow respirations are a hallmark sign of respiratory muscle weakness in A.L.S. due to the degeneration of motor neurons.
5. The patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse?
- A. The oxygen saturation is 94%.
- B. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg.
- C. The patient's central IV line is disconnected.
- D. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most immediate action required by the nurse is to address the disconnected central IV line delivering epoprostenol (Flolan). Epoprostenol has a short half-life of 6 minutes, necessitating immediate reconnection to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. While oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and INR are important parameters requiring monitoring and intervention, the priority lies in ensuring the continuous delivery of the critical medication to stabilize the patient's condition.
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