Nursing Elites

1. After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Teach about drug-resistant TB treatment
• B. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed
• C. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly
• D. Discuss with the healthcare provider the need for the patient to use an injectable antibiotic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Teaching about drug-resistant TB treatment (Choice A) is premature without knowing the current medication compliance status. Scheduling directly observed therapy (Choice C) assumes non-compliance without confirming it first. Discussing the need for an injectable antibiotic (Choice D) is premature and not necessarily indicated without assessing the current medication adherence.

2. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer both drugs.
• B. Administer the spironolactone.
• C. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide.
• D. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.

3. The clinic nurse is assessing jaundice in a child with hepatitis. Which anatomical area would provide the best data regarding the presence of jaundice?

• A. The nail beds.
• B. The skin in the sacral area.
• C. The skin in the abdominal area.
• D. The membranes in the ear canal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jaundice, if present, can be best assessed in areas such as the sclera, nail beds, and mucous membranes due to the yellowing of these tissues. The nail beds specifically provide a good indication of jaundice. The skin in the sacral area (Option B) is not typically the best area for assessing jaundice as it is less visible and not as reliable as the nail beds. The skin in the abdominal area (Option C) may show generalized jaundice, but the nail beds are more specific for detecting early signs. Lastly, assessing the membranes in the ear canal (Option D) is not a standard method for evaluating jaundice; the sclera and nail beds are more commonly used for this purpose.

4. A client has developed a vitamin C deficiency. Which of the following symptoms might the nurse most likely see with this condition?

• A. Cracks at the corners of the mouth
• B. Altered mental status
• C. Bleeding gums and loose teeth
• D. Anorexia and diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client with a severe vitamin C deficiency has a condition called scurvy. Scurvy is characterized by symptoms such as bleeding gums, loose teeth, poor wound healing, and easy bruising. The correct answer is 'Bleeding gums and loose teeth' because these are classic signs of scurvy due to vitamin C deficiency. Choice A ('Cracks at the corners of the mouth') is more indicative of a deficiency in B vitamins, specifically riboflavin. Choice B ('Altered mental status') is not typically associated with vitamin C deficiency but can occur with other conditions like vitamin B12 deficiency. Choice D ('Anorexia and diarrhea') are not common symptoms of vitamin C deficiency, as they are more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal issues or deficiencies in different nutrients.

5. Which assessment finding would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider regarding a patient with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Hypotonic bowel sounds
• C. Abdominal tenderness and guarding
• D. Muscle twitching and finger numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is muscle twitching and finger numbness. These symptoms indicate hypocalcemia, which can lead to tetany if not promptly addressed with calcium gluconate administration. Nausea and vomiting, hypotonic bowel sounds, and abdominal tenderness and guarding are important findings in acute pancreatitis but do not require the same urgent intervention as hypocalcemia to prevent potential severe complications.

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