Nursing Elites

1. After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Teach about drug-resistant TB treatment
• B. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed
• C. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly
• D. Discuss with the healthcare provider the need for the patient to use an injectable antibiotic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Teaching about drug-resistant TB treatment (Choice A) is premature without knowing the current medication compliance status. Scheduling directly observed therapy (Choice C) assumes non-compliance without confirming it first. Discussing the need for an injectable antibiotic (Choice D) is premature and not necessarily indicated without assessing the current medication adherence.

2. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?

• A. Septic shock
• B. Hypovolemic shock
• C. Neurogenic shock
• D. Cardiogenic shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.

3. A 67-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective?

• A. Bowel sounds are present.
• B. Grey Turner sign resolves.
• C. Electrolyte levels are normal.
• D. Abdominal pain is decreased.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Abdominal pain is decreased.' In a patient with acute pancreatitis, the goal of using an NG tube for suction and keeping the patient NPO is to decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes and alleviate pain. Therefore, a decrease in abdominal pain would indicate the effectiveness of these therapies. Bowel sounds being present do not necessarily indicate treatment effectiveness, as they can still be present even if the therapies are not fully effective. Normal electrolyte levels are important but do not directly reflect the efficacy of NG suction and NPO status. The resolution of Grey Turner sign, a bruising over the flanks associated with pancreatitis, is a late and non-specific finding and waiting for it to resolve is not a reliable indicator of treatment effectiveness.

4. What should the nurse in the emergency department do first for a new patient who is vomiting blood?

• A. Insert a large-gauge IV catheter.
• B. Draw blood for coagulation studies.
• C. Check blood pressure (BP), heart rate, and respirations.
• D. Place the patient in the supine position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's initial action should focus on assessing the patient's hemodynamic status by checking vital signs like blood pressure, heart rate, and respirations. This assessment will help determine the patient's immediate needs and guide further interventions. Drawing blood for coagulation studies and inserting an IV catheter are important steps, but they can follow the initial assessment of vital signs. Placing the patient in the supine position can be risky without first assessing the patient's vital signs, as aspiration is a concern. Therefore, assessing vital signs is the priority to ensure appropriate and timely care for the patient.

5. Which oxygen delivery system would provide the highest concentrations of oxygen to the client?

• A. Venturi mask
• B. Partial rebreather mask
• C. Non-rebreather mask
• D. Simple face mask

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the non-rebreather mask. This oxygen delivery system has a one-way valve that prevents exhaled air from entering the reservoir bag and one or more valves covering the air holes on the face mask itself to prevent the inhalation of room air but allow exhalation of air. When a tight seal is achieved around the mask, up to 100% of oxygen is available. Choice A, the Venturi mask, delivers precise oxygen concentrations but not as high as the non-rebreather mask. Choice B, the partial rebreather mask, allows the client to rebreathe some exhaled air, resulting in lower oxygen concentrations than the non-rebreather mask. Choice D, the simple face mask, delivers low to moderate oxygen concentrations and is not designed to provide the highest concentrations like the non-rebreather mask.

Similar Questions