NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?
- A. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
- B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
- C. The infant likely has only one testis.
- D. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.
2. The client is being educated about depression by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. ''All elderly individuals experience depression occasionally.''
- B. ''I'm relieved that I will improve within 2 or 3 days.''
- C. ''I never realized depression could occur without a specific cause.''
- D. ''Reducing stress in my life will alleviate the depression.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer, 'I never realized depression could occur without a specific cause,' demonstrates an understanding that depression can arise without a clear trigger, indicating effective teaching. Choice A is incorrect because not all elderly individuals experience depression, and this statement doesn't show understanding. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects a misconception about the quick resolution of depression. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between stress reduction and depression resolution.
3. Which of the following clients is most likely ready to be dismissed from an inpatient care setting to home?
- A. A 65-year old male with urine output of 60cc in the past four hours
- B. A 2-month old female with a temperature of 100.6 rectally
- C. A 38-year old female who transitioned from IV TPN to full liquids six hours ago
- D. A 4-year old male with an oxygen saturation of 96% on room air
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients must meet a certain amount of set criteria before they will be discharged from a healthcare facility. Although guidelines may vary between locations, most healthcare facilities expect clients to have adequate oxygenation, nutrition, and elimination; and be free from fever, vomiting, and significant pain
4. The nurse is assessing an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?
- A. Unequal leg length
- B. Limited adduction
- C. Diminished femoral pulses
- D. Symmetrical gluteal folds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Unequal leg length.' Shortening of a leg is a common sign of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Limited adduction (Choice B) may be present but is less specific to developmental dysplasia of the hip. Diminished femoral pulses (Choice C) are not typically associated with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Symmetrical gluteal folds (Choice D) are a normal finding and would not be expected in a patient with developmental dysplasia of the hip.
5. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
- B. Give the client Cogentin
- C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
- D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.
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