the mother of a 2 month old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well baby check she is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scro
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.

2. Which of the following is a function of risk management?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The function of risk management in healthcare is to assess and address potential risks that could lead to errors and their effects on the healthcare environment. This involves identifying, evaluating, and prioritizing risks to minimize their impact and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the core purpose of risk management in healthcare. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary focus of risk management, which is the proactive management of risks to ensure patient safety and quality care.

3. The charge nurse is notified that the unit will be receiving an admission of a client from another bed in the hospital in order to make room for others being admitted through the emergency room. The unit is the Women's Health Center of the hospital. Which of the following patients would be most appropriate to be transferred to this unit?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When deciding on transferring patients between units in a hospital, it is essential to consider the appropriateness of the patient for the receiving unit. The Women's Health Center typically caters to female patients with gynecological or obstetric conditions that do not require intensive monitoring or specialized care. In this scenario, the most suitable patient for transfer to the Women's Health Center would be the 26-year-old woman who had a bowel resection, as her condition aligns more closely with the services provided in that unit. The other options, including a male patient, a critically ill patient on a ventilator, and an elderly patient with Alzheimer's disease, would not be appropriate for transfer to a Women's Health Center due to the specialized care they require, which may not align with the unit's focus and staffing capabilities.

4. Which of the following is an example of intragroup conflict?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Intragroup conflict refers to disagreements within a group. The correct answer, 'Members of a multidisciplinary team cannot agree on the best course of action for a client,' exemplifies this type of conflict well. In this scenario, professionals within the same team are unable to reach a consensus on how to proceed with client care. Choices A, C, and D do not reflect intragroup conflict. Writing a grant for a non-profit organization, a client not receiving medication due to a nurse's break, and a nurse feeling frustrated about the lack of on-site child care do not involve conflicts within a group of professionals.

5. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

Similar Questions

The nurse is performing discharge teaching for Mrs. S after cardiac angioplasty. Her husband is present for the teaching. While explaining the prescription for antiplatelet medication to use at home, Mrs. S's husband states, 'I don't think I can afford to refill that medication.' What is the most appropriate response of the nurse?
Which of the following is an example of the intervention phase of the individualized nursing care plan for a client who receives a colostomy after a bowel resection?
A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3-year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?
Which of the following is an example of effective time management?
Which of the following is an example of a breach of a client's right to privacy?

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