the mother of a 2 month old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well baby check she is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scro
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.

2. You are caring for a patient with newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis. Discharge instructions will likely include all of the following EXCEPT:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Discharge instructions for a patient with newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis should focus on promoting safety and minimizing exacerbations. Hot baths should be avoided as excessive heat can trigger acute symptoms. Therefore, instructions may include PT referral for an exercise program to maintain mobility, avoidance of prolonged sun exposure to prevent symptom exacerbation, and guidance to evaluate the home environment for safety as symptoms progress. Hot baths are not recommended due to the risk of exacerbating symptoms, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate for a patient with multiple sclerosis, as they address mobility, symptom management, and safety concerns, respectively.

3. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.

4. The BRAT diet is often prescribed for patients with gastroenteritis. This acronym stands for:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The BRAT diet, which stands for Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, and Toast, is commonly recommended for patients with gastroenteritis. These easily digestible foods help firm up stools due to their low fiber content and provide essential nutrients lost during vomiting and diarrhea. Choice B is incorrect because it includes apricots, which are not part of the traditional BRAT diet. Choice C is incorrect as it includes rolls, which are not typically included in the BRAT diet. Choice D is incorrect as it includes tapioca, which is not part of the traditional BRAT diet. Therefore, the correct answer is Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, and Toast.

5. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

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