NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. Which of the following conditions increases a client's risk of aspiration of stomach contents?
- A. A client is in restraints
- B. A client has a scaphoid abdomen
- C. A client is lying prone
- D. More than one answer is correct
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A client in restraints is at an increased risk of aspiration of stomach contents. When a client is restrained, they may be unable to effectively move or turn their body if they begin to vomit, which can lead to aspiration. This lack of mobility can hinder their ability to protect their airway. On the other hand, a scaphoid abdomen, which is sunken or hollowed, is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Additionally, lying prone, facing downward, does not necessarily increase the risk of aspiration, as aspiration is more likely when lying supine (facing upward). Therefore, the correct answer is that a client is in restraints.
2. An occupational health nurse works at a manufacturing plant where there is potential exposure to inhaled dust. Which action, if recommended by the nurse, will be most helpful in reducing the incidence of lung disease?
- A. Treat workers with pulmonary fibrosis.
- B. Teach about symptoms of lung disease.
- C. Require the use of protective equipment.
- D. Monitor workers for coughing and wheezing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prevention of lung disease requires the use of appropriate protective equipment such as masks to reduce exposure to inhaled dust, which is a significant risk factor for lung disease. Teaching about symptoms of lung disease, treating workers with pulmonary fibrosis, and monitoring for coughing and wheezing are important actions for early recognition and treatment of lung disease. However, the most effective strategy to prevent lung damage in this scenario is to require the use of protective equipment to minimize exposure to harmful substances.
3. A client needs to give informed consent for electroconvulsive therapy treatments. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Explain the adverse effects the client might experience from the treatment
- B. Verify the client gave consent voluntarily for the treatment
- C. Describe the benefits of the treatment to the client
- D. Outline possible alternatives to the treatment for the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When obtaining informed consent for a procedure like electroconvulsive therapy, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure that the client has given consent voluntarily and is capable of making such a decision. While it is essential to provide information on the treatment's benefits, risks, and alternatives, the priority is to verify the client's voluntary consent. Explaining the adverse effects and describing the benefits are important steps in the informed consent process, but the critical step is to confirm the client's voluntary agreement. Outlining possible alternatives to the treatment is also important but comes after ensuring the client's voluntary consent.
4. A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
- A. Myocardial infarction due to a history of atherosclerosis.
- B. Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
- C. Anxiety attacks due to worries about her baby's health.
- D. Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These clots can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice A) is less likely in a young patient without a significant history of atherosclerosis. Anxiety attacks (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this context. Congestive heart failure (Choice D) is less probable given the acute onset of symptoms and absence of typical signs like peripheral edema in this case.
5. An assisted living facility is an example of which type of healthcare provider?
- A. Primary care
- B. Secondary care
- C. Tertiary care
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An assisted living facility is an example of a tertiary care provider. Tertiary care providers offer specialized services such as rehabilitation, long-term care, and management of complex medical conditions. These services are typically provided after primary and secondary care interventions. Choice A, primary care, focuses on preventive care and routine medical treatment for common illnesses, which is not the level of care provided by assisted living facilities. Choice B, secondary care, involves specialized medical services provided by medical specialists and hospitals for conditions that require a higher level of expertise than primary care, but it is not the level of care provided by assisted living facilities. Choice D, None of the above, is incorrect as assisted living facilities fall under the category of tertiary care providers.
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