which of the following conditions increases a clients risk of aspiration of stomach contents
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions

1. Which of the following conditions increases a client's risk of aspiration of stomach contents?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client in restraints is at an increased risk of aspiration of stomach contents. When a client is restrained, they may be unable to effectively move or turn their body if they begin to vomit, which can lead to aspiration. This lack of mobility can hinder their ability to protect their airway. On the other hand, a scaphoid abdomen, which is sunken or hollowed, is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Additionally, lying prone, facing downward, does not necessarily increase the risk of aspiration, as aspiration is more likely when lying supine (facing upward). Therefore, the correct answer is that a client is in restraints.

2. A patient who has been diagnosed with vasospastic disorder (Raynaud's disease) complains of cold and stiffness in the fingers. Which of the following descriptions is most likely to fit the patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A young woman.' Raynaud's disease is most common in young women and is often associated with rheumatologic disorders like lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. This disorder involves vasospasm of the arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the fingers and toes. Typically, Raynaud's affects the fingers, and in some cases, it can affect the toes. Only rarely does it involve other body parts such as the nose, ears, nipples, and lips. Choices B, C, and D are less likely as Raynaud's disease predominantly affects young women, although it can occur in other demographic groups as well.

3. A nurse is assisting a pregnant client who is having an amniocentesis. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates the correct teaching for this procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An amniocentesis is performed to draw amniotic luid from the sac around the fetus during pregnancy. It may be analyzed for certain disorders or complications associated with pregnancy. Following the procedure, the nurse should wash the client's abdomen and place a small bandage over the puncture site

4. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

5. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.

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