Nursing Elites

1. At the beginning of her shift in a long-term care facility, which of the following clients should a nurse check on first?

• A. A 91-year-old man who needs help eating breakfast
• B. An 86-year-old man who has been incontinent in his bed
• C. An 82-year-old woman who needs IV antibiotics
• D. A 75-year-old man who is recovering from an injury and needs an ice pack

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing care in a long-term care facility, the nurse must consider tasks that require their immediate attention and cannot be delegated. Administering IV antibiotics is a critical nursing task that only the nurse can perform, ensuring the timely and correct delivery of medication to the patient. While assisting with breakfast, managing incontinence, and providing an ice pack are important, these tasks can be delegated to other healthcare team members, allowing the nurse to address the client needing IV antibiotics first to ensure effective treatment and patient safety.

2. A physician has written an order for '2.0 mg MS q 2-4 hr prn pain.' What is the nurse's appropriate response to this order?

• A. Give 2 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
• B. Give 20 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
• C. Contact the pharmacy to clarify the order
• D. Contact the physician to rewrite the order

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The physician's order contains several errors that could lead to potential harm to the client if not addressed. The use of '2.0' involves a trailing decimal point, which may lead to confusion regarding the intended dose of the drug. Additionally, the abbreviation 'MS' is considered a Do Not Use abbreviation by the Joint Commission, as it could refer to morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate, leading to medication errors. While the order indicates the drug should be used for pain, the nurse should contact the physician to clarify the exact dose and specific drug to be administered, ensuring safe and accurate medication administration. Therefore, the correct response is to contact the physician to rewrite the order.

3. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.

4. As you are assessing the fetus during labor, you are determining the fetal lie, presentation, attitude, station, and position. Your client asks you what all these assessments are. Among other things, how should you respond to the mother?

• A. You should explain that fetal lie is where the fetus's presenting part is within the birth canal during labor, among other information about the other assessments.
• B. You should explain that fetal presentation is the relationship of the fetus's spine to the mother's spine, among other information about the other assessments.
• C. You should explain that fetal attitude is the relationship of the fetus's presenting part to the anterior, posterior, right, or left side of the mother's pelvis, among other information about the other assessments.
• D. You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines, among other information about the other assessments.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: You should explain that fetal station is the level of the fetus's presenting part in relationship to the mother's ischial spines. Fetal station is measured in terms of the number of centimeters above or below the mother's ischial spines. When the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters above the ischial spines, the fetal station is -1 to -5, and when the fetus is 1 to 5 centimeters below the level of the maternal ischial spines, the fetal station is +1 to +5. Choices A, B, and C provide incorrect information about fetal lie, presentation, and attitude, respectively, which do not align with the definitions of these terms in obstetrics.

5. Mr. Freeman has difficulty getting out of bed. The nurse should encourage Mr. Freeman to ______________.

• A. ask for assistance before getting out of bed.
• B. remain in bed because it is safer and he will not fall.
• C. instruct him to stand up quickly from the bed.
• D. lean forward and push up and off the bed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should encourage Mr. Freeman to use his call bell and ask for assistance before getting out of bed. This can prevent him from falling. Patients should not stay in bed; they should be encouraged to get out of bed as much as possible to prevent complications like pressure ulcers and muscle weakness. Instructing a patient to stand up quickly from the bed is unsafe as it can lead to dizziness and falls. Similarly, leaning forward and pushing off the bed can increase the risk of falls and should be avoided. Asking for assistance is the safest and most appropriate option to ensure patient safety and prevent accidents.

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