NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Predictor Exam
1. A client is being admitted to the hospital because of a seizure that occurred at his home. The client has no previous history of seizures. In planning the client's nursing care, which of the following measures is most essential at the time of admission?
- A. Place a padded tongue depressor at the head of the bed.
- B. Pad the bed with blankets.
- C. Inform the client about the importance of wearing a medical identification tag.
- D. Teach the client about seizures.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most essential measure when admitting a client who had a seizure is to pad the bed with blankets (Option B). This is crucial to prevent injury in case of another seizure. Placing a padded tongue depressor at the head of the bed (Option A) is incorrect as current nursing guidelines advise against putting anything in the client's mouth during a seizure. Informing the client about wearing a medical identification tag (Option C) and teaching the client about seizures (Option D) are important but are more relevant once the cause of the seizure is known. It's crucial to remember that not all seizures are classified as epilepsy.
2. How does the procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differ from an adult?
- A. Pulse rates are taken on infants using a different method.
- B. The apical pulse method is used on infants.
- C. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer.
- D. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The apical pulse method is used on infants. This method involves placing a stethoscope in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, and counting the beats for a full minute. It is a preferred method for infants due to their small size and the difficulty in palpating peripheral pulses accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as pulse rates are indeed taken on infants, albeit using a different method. Choice C is incorrect as a sphygmomanometer is typically used for measuring blood pressure, not pulse rates. Choice D is incorrect as pulse rates on infants are usually taken apically in the fifth intercostal space, not the third.
3. The healthcare professional is preparing to use a stethoscope for auscultation. Which statement is true regarding the diaphragm of the stethoscope?
- A. Used to listen for high-pitched sounds
- B. Used to listen for low-pitched sounds
- C. Should be firmly held against the person's skin to block out low-pitched sounds
- D. Should be lightly held against the person's skin to listen for extra heart sounds and murmurs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed for listening to high-pitched sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds. It should be firmly held against the person's skin to ensure optimal sound transmission, leaving a ring after use. On the other hand, the bell of the stethoscope is ideal for detecting soft, low-pitched sounds such as extra heart sounds or murmurs. Therefore, the diaphragm is not used to block out low-pitched sounds but rather to enhance the detection of high-frequency sounds.
4. What is the anatomic structure located in the middle of the heart that separates the right and left ventricles?
- A. Septum
- B. Sputum
- C. Separator
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the septum. The septum is a structure located in the middle of the heart that separates the right and left ventricles. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the separation between the two ventricles to ensure efficient blood flow. The other choices, 'Sputum' and 'Separator,' are incorrect as they do not refer to the anatomic structure in the heart that serves this specific function. 'Sputum' is a term used to describe phlegm or mucus, not an anatomical structure, and 'Separator' is a generic term that does not specifically identify the cardiac structure mentioned in the question.
5. Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates a possible nutritional deficiency?
- A. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen
- B. Presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue
- C. Straight arms and legs
- D. Pale conjunctiva
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client with poor nutritional intake may have pale mucous membranes surrounding the eye, or the conjunctiva. This area should normally be pink, indicating good circulation and a lack of irritation or dryness. Improper nutrition can manifest as numerous signs in the body, including bowed legs, pale mucous membranes, a smooth or beefy tongue, and poor muscle tone. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen is not a sign of nutritional deficiency but rather of excess fat deposition. The presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue is normal and not indicative of a nutritional deficiency. Straight arms and legs are also typical anatomical features and not specifically related to nutritional deficiencies.
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