Nursing Elites

1. A client is being admitted to the hospital because of a seizure that occurred at his home. The client has no previous history of seizures. In planning the client's nursing care, which of the following measures is most essential at the time of admission?

• A. Place a padded tongue depressor at the head of the bed.
• B. Pad the bed with blankets.
• C. Inform the client about the importance of wearing a medical identification tag.
• D. Teach the client about seizures.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most essential measure when admitting a client who had a seizure is to pad the bed with blankets (Option B). This is crucial to prevent injury in case of another seizure. Placing a padded tongue depressor at the head of the bed (Option A) is incorrect as current nursing guidelines advise against putting anything in the client's mouth during a seizure. Informing the client about wearing a medical identification tag (Option C) and teaching the client about seizures (Option D) are important but are more relevant once the cause of the seizure is known. It's crucial to remember that not all seizures are classified as epilepsy.

2. Before allowing the client's infant granddaughter to visit before the client's scheduled heart transplant, the nurse decides it would be beneficial to collaborate with which of the following? Select all that apply.

• A. Client and Family
• B. Other nursing staff on the unit
• C. Security department
• D. Hospital administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Collaborating with the client and family is crucial as it fosters a sense of autonomy and active involvement in the healthcare process for the client. Involving other nursing staff ensures the successful implementation of the planned intervention and provides support for the client's needs. Collaboration with the security department or hospital administration is not necessary in this situation, as the focus should be on the client's well-being and family involvement during a sensitive time.

3. The instructor is teaching a class on basic assessment skills. Which of the following statements is true regarding the stethoscope and its use?

• A. Slope of the earpieces should point forward toward the examiner's nose.
• B. It blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.
• C. The tubing length should be 14 to 18 inches to prevent sound distortion.
• D. Both fit and quality of the stethoscope are important.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The stethoscope does not magnify sound but effectively blocks out extraneous room noises. The correct orientation of the earpieces is with the slope pointing forward toward the examiner's nose, not posteriorly. The tubing length of a stethoscope should ideally be between 14 to 18 inches (36 to 46 cm) to avoid sound distortion. Using tubing longer than this range can distort sound. Both the fit and quality of the stethoscope are crucial for accurate auscultation and assessment, highlighting their significance in clinical practice. Therefore, the correct answer is that the stethoscope blocks out extraneous room noise but does not magnify sound.

4. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

5. A physician has ordered that a client must be placed in a high Fowler's position. How does the nurse position this client?

• A. The client is placed face-down
• B. The client lies on his back with his head lower than his feet
• C. The client lies on his back with the knees drawn up toward the chest
• D. The client is sitting with the backrest at a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A high Fowler's position is a modification of the semi-Fowler's position, in which the client is seated with arms resting at the sides or in the lap. The high Fowler's position requires that the client's head and upper chest are elevated, and the backrest is at a 90-degree angle. This position supports breathing and appropriate chest wall movement, making it easier for the client to breathe. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a high Fowler's position involves the client being in a sitting position with the backrest at a 90-degree angle, not being face-down, lying with the head lower than the feet, or lying on the back with knees drawn up towards the chest.

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