Nursing Elites

1. While performing the physical examination, why does the nurse share information and briefly teach the patient?

• A. To help the patient feel more comfortable and gain control of the situation
• B. To build rapport and increase the patient's confidence in the examiner
• C. To assist the patient in understanding his or her disease process and treatment modalities
• D. To aid the patient in identifying questions about his or her disease and potential areas of needed education

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sharing information and briefly teaching the patient during a physical examination helps build rapport and increase the patient's confidence in the examiner. This approach gives the patient a sense of control in a situation that can often be overwhelming. While sharing information may make the patient feel more comfortable, the primary goal is to enhance the patient's confidence in the examiner. Providing information does not necessarily directly assist the patient in understanding their disease process and treatment modalities, as this may require a more in-depth explanation. The main focus is on establishing a trusting relationship and empowering the patient during the examination, rather than solely aiding in identifying questions or areas needing education.

2. A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant's vital signs?

• A. The infant's radial pulse should be palpated, and the nurse should notice any fluctuations resulting from activity or exercise.
• B. The nurse should auscultate an apical rate for 1 minute and then assess for any normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia.
• C. The infant's blood pressure should be assessed by using a stethoscope with a large diaphragm piece to hear the soft muffled Korotkoff sounds.
• D. The infant's chest should be observed and the respiratory rate counted for 1 minute; the respiratory pattern may vary significantly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant's respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant's abdomen, not chest, because an infant's respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.

3. Which of the following diseases would require the nurse to wear an N95 respirator as part of personal protective equipment?

• A. Human immunodeficiency virus
• B. Clostridium difficile enterocolitis
• C. Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
• D. Measles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infections that require airborne precautions necessitate the use of an N95 respirator, a type of mask that filters particles that are 5 micrograms or smaller. Illnesses that require airborne precautions include Measles, Varicella, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), and tuberculosis. Measles is a highly contagious airborne disease caused by a virus. It can spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Wearing an N95 respirator helps prevent the nurse from inhaling these infectious particles. Human immunodeficiency virus, Clostridium difficile enterocolitis, and Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus do not require the use of an N95 respirator as they are not transmitted through the air but have other modes of transmission.

4. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

5. After performing the appropriate client assessment, which of the following inferences would the nurse make?

• A. Client is hypotensive
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
• C. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• D. Client relays anxiety about blood work

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An inference is the nurse's judgment or interpretation of cues gathered during an assessment. In this scenario, identifying a client as hypotensive would be an inference based on blood pressure readings that indicate lower than normal values. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation levels (choices B and C) are important cues that provide additional data but do not directly point to a specific conclusion like hypotension. The client expressing anxiety about blood work (choice D) is relevant information but relates more to their emotional state rather than a physiological assessment finding.

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