Nursing Elites

1. While performing the physical examination, why does the nurse share information and briefly teach the patient?

• A. To help the patient feel more comfortable and gain control of the situation
• B. To build rapport and increase the patient's confidence in the examiner
• C. To assist the patient in understanding his or her disease process and treatment modalities
• D. To aid the patient in identifying questions about his or her disease and potential areas of needed education

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sharing information and briefly teaching the patient during a physical examination helps build rapport and increase the patient's confidence in the examiner. This approach gives the patient a sense of control in a situation that can often be overwhelming. While sharing information may make the patient feel more comfortable, the primary goal is to enhance the patient's confidence in the examiner. Providing information does not necessarily directly assist the patient in understanding their disease process and treatment modalities, as this may require a more in-depth explanation. The main focus is on establishing a trusting relationship and empowering the patient during the examination, rather than solely aiding in identifying questions or areas needing education.

2. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?

• A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
• B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
• C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
• D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.

3. While measuring a patient's blood pressure, which factor influences a patient's blood pressure?

• A. Pulse rate
• B. Pulse pressure
• C. Vascular output
• D. Peripheral vascular resistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When measuring a patient's blood pressure, it is important to consider various factors that influence blood pressure. Peripheral vascular resistance plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. The level of blood pressure is affected by factors such as cardiac output, peripheral vascular resistance, volume of circulating blood, viscosity, and elasticity of the vessel walls. Pulse rate (Choice A) refers to the number of heartbeats per minute and is not a primary factor influencing blood pressure. Pulse pressure (Choice B) is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure and does not directly impact blood pressure regulation. Vascular output (Choice C) is not a recognized term in blood pressure regulation and is not a primary factor affecting blood pressure.

4. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

5. When printing out an EKG, a nurse notices that the QRS complexes are extremely small. What should be the next step?

• A. Alert the physician immediately as this is a sign of impending cardiac arrest.
• B. Check to see that all leads are attached and rerun the EKG.
• C. Increase the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection.
• D. Decrease the run speed to 50.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection will double the sensitivity, allowing for better observation of the small QRS complexes. This step is crucial in obtaining a clearer EKG reading. Choice A is incorrect because small QRS complexes do not necessarily indicate impending cardiac arrest; it's more likely a technical issue. Choice B is not the first step to take when small QRS complexes are observed; it's important to adjust the settings first. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing the run speed to 50 is not the appropriate action for this situation; adjusting the sensitivity control is more relevant to improve the visualization of the complexes.

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