Nursing Elites

1. The family of a patient who is receiving therapeutic hypothermia states they do not understand why the patient is being kept so cold. What objective information can you provide to help address their concerns?

• A. Let them talk to another patient who has had the same therapy
• B. Provide research-based information about therapeutic hypothermia
• C. Connect them with the nurse manager
• D. Call the physician and ask him to talk to the family

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing research-based information about the benefits of therapeutic hypothermia for their loved one will provide evidence that this is an established therapy with generally positive outcomes. Families are certainly not expected to be familiar with critical care interventions, and their concerns should be addressed with evidence-based data whenever possible. Option A is not appropriate as sharing patient information violates privacy laws and does not address the family's concerns directly. Option C may not directly provide the detailed information the family needs to understand therapeutic hypothermia. Option D involves unnecessary escalation by immediately involving the physician, when providing education and information should be the initial step in addressing the family's concerns.

2. The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old child for symptoms of autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Which assessment finding should lead the nurse to question the diagnosis?

• A. Inability to react appropriately to social cues
• B. Engages in repetitive behaviors
• C. Comprehends language well beyond the complexity expected for age
• D. Displays self-destructive behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Comprehends language well beyond the complexity expected for age.' Children with autism spectrum disorder typically struggle with language and communication skills, so comprehending language well beyond their age level would not align with the diagnosis of ASD. This finding could indicate other developmental strengths or delays. Choices A, B, and D are more commonly associated with ASD - the inability to react appropriately to social cues, engaging in repetitive behaviors, and displaying self-destructive behavior are typical manifestations of autism spectrum disorder.

3. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?

• A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
• B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
• C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
• D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.

4. A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis?

• A. Family history of heart disease
• B. Overweight
• C. Smoking
• D. Age

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor for developing atherosclerosis. This factor is not modifiable through lifestyle changes. Studies have shown that having a first-degree relative with heart disease significantly increases the individual's risk of developing atherosclerosis. Overweight, smoking, and age are not hereditary risk factors for atherosclerosis. Overweight and smoking are lifestyle-related risk factors, while age is a non-modifiable risk factor that increases with time but is not directly inherited.

5. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

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