Nursing Elites

1. A client is seen in the emergency room as a victim of suspected domestic violence. The nurse's aide brings the client to a center curtained area, gives her a gown to change into, and asks her to wait for the nurse. What is the most appropriate action of the nurse upon arrival?

• A. Ask the client to undress to assess for injuries
• B. Take the client into a private room
• C. Notify the police to file a report
• D. Notify the house supervisor to keep security on alert

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client suspected of domestic violence, it is crucial to provide privacy and a safe environment. Taking the client into a private room allows for a confidential conversation and assessment without compromising the client's safety or dignity. The nurse should prioritize creating a safe space for the client to share information and receive support. Notification of authorities should only occur once a thorough assessment has been conducted to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Option A is incorrect because asking the client to undress should be done with sensitivity and respect for the client's privacy, focusing on assessing injuries rather than visualizing them. Option C is premature as involving the police should be based on a comprehensive assessment and the client's consent. Option D is not the most immediate and direct action required to address the client's immediate needs in a suspected domestic violence situation.

2. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.

3. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

• A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
• B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
• C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
• D. Dopamine system stabilizers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

4. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?

• A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
• B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
• C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
• D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.

5. The nurse teaches a patient about the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective?

• A. I will avoid being outdoors whenever possible.
• B. My husband will be sleeping in the guest bedroom.
• C. I will take the bus instead of driving to visit my friends.
• D. I will keep the windows closed at home to contain the germs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis, it is important for the infected individual to minimize exposure to close contacts and household members. Sleeping alone in a separate room, like the guest bedroom, is an effective measure. The other choices are not ideal: Choice A is incorrect because spending time outdoors is encouraged for ventilation; Choice C is incorrect as using public transportation increases the risk of transmission; Choice D is incorrect because keeping windows closed limits ventilation, which is necessary to reduce the concentration of infectious particles in the air.

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