NCLEX-RN
Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which of the following is an example of the intervention phase of the individualized nursing care plan for a client who receives a colostomy after a bowel resection?
- A. Taking a health history and performing a physical exam prior to the procedure
- B. Instructing the client about how to care for his colostomy stoma
- C. Developing goals that state the client will ambulate three times a day
- D. Determining that the client may need more support at home after dismissal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The intervention stage of the individualized nursing care plan is where the nurse provides care, treatments, or education to help the client meet the devised outcomes. Instructing the client about how to care for his colostomy stoma is the correct example of an intervention as it directly involves providing education and guidance to the client on post-operative care. This intervention supports the process of helping the client meet the outcomes designed for this case, which is to enable the client to properly care for his colostomy after a bowel resection. The other options do not directly involve interventions aimed at assisting the client in meeting the specific care needs related to the colostomy procedure.
2. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?
- A. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
- B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
- C. The infant likely has only one testis.
- D. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.
3. Your patient has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following would NOT be included in your teaching of this patient?
- A. If you have symptoms, you should avoid sexual contact with other individuals.
- B. With treatment, this condition can be cured.
- C. This disease is highly contagious.
- D. You may experience tingling in the skin before an active outbreak occurs.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'With treatment, this condition can be cured.' The treatment for herpes simplex virus (HSV) is symptomatic and palliative, aimed at managing symptoms rather than curing the infection. HSV is highly contagious, so sexual contact should be avoided during active outbreaks to prevent transmission. Many patients experience a tingling sensation in the skin before an active outbreak, known as a prodrome. Educating the patient that the condition is not curable but manageable with treatment is vital to set realistic expectations and promote proper management of the disease.
4. A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis?
- A. Family history of heart disease
- B. Overweight
- C. Smoking
- D. Age
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor for developing atherosclerosis. This factor is not modifiable through lifestyle changes. Studies have shown that having a first-degree relative with heart disease significantly increases the individual's risk of developing atherosclerosis. Overweight, smoking, and age are not hereditary risk factors for atherosclerosis. Overweight and smoking are lifestyle-related risk factors, while age is a non-modifiable risk factor that increases with time but is not directly inherited.
5. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?
- A. Tactile hallucinations
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Restlessness and muscle rigidity
- D. Reports of hearing disturbing voices
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Benztropine (Cogentin) is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle rigidity, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Tactile hallucinations and reports of hearing disturbing voices are symptoms of schizophrenia that would typically be addressed by the antipsychotic medication (haloperidol) itself. Tardive dyskinesia, a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, would require discontinuation of the antipsychotic medication rather than administration of benztropine.
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