NCLEX-RN
Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which of the following is an example of the intervention phase of the individualized nursing care plan for a client who receives a colostomy after a bowel resection?
- A. Taking a health history and performing a physical exam prior to the procedure
- B. Instructing the client about how to care for his colostomy stoma
- C. Developing goals that state the client will ambulate three times a day
- D. Determining that the client may need more support at home after dismissal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The intervention stage of the individualized nursing care plan is where the nurse provides care, treatments, or education to help the client meet the devised outcomes. Instructing the client about how to care for his colostomy stoma is the correct example of an intervention as it directly involves providing education and guidance to the client on post-operative care. This intervention supports the process of helping the client meet the outcomes designed for this case, which is to enable the client to properly care for his colostomy after a bowel resection. The other options do not directly involve interventions aimed at assisting the client in meeting the specific care needs related to the colostomy procedure.
2. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?
- A. 5 mm/hr
- B. 12 mm/hr
- C. 28 mm/hr
- D. 40 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.
3. After Brandon is stabilized following his second myocardial infarction due to cocaine use, what collaborative process should begin to connect him with additional resources?
- A. Law enforcement for further prevention
- B. Social services for rehab
- C. Narcotics Anonymous
- D. Financial counselor to apply for assistance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Following stabilization, it is essential to connect Brandon with additional resources to address his addiction. Social services are a crucial collaborative partner in this situation because they have access to community resources that can support Brandon's rehabilitation needs. While law enforcement may be involved in certain situations, their primary role is not to provide rehabilitation services. Narcotics Anonymous is a valuable support group but does not offer the comprehensive services that social services for rehab can provide. A financial counselor may be beneficial for addressing financial concerns, but the priority at this stage is to address Brandon's addiction through appropriate rehabilitation services.
4. What information should be collected when assessing the health status of a community?
- A. Air pollution levels
- B. Number of health food stores
- C. Most common causes of death
- D. Education level of the individuals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assessing the health status of a community, it is crucial to gather data on various health measures such as the most common causes of death. This information helps in understanding the prevalent health issues within the community. Factors like air pollution levels, the number of health food stores, and the education level of individuals are important community aspects but do not directly reflect the health status of the community. Therefore, the correct answer is to collect data on the most common causes of death as it provides insights into the major health concerns affecting the community.
5. Which of the following situations warrants a measurement for orthostatic hypotension?
- A. A 36-year-old male with a spinal injury
- B. An 86-year-old female with significantly altered mental status
- C. A 58-year-old female with near-syncope
- D. A 41-year-old male with acute deep vein thrombosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a 58-year-old female with near-syncope. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg systolic when moving from a sitting or lying position to standing. Patients at higher risk include those with syncope or near-syncope, symptomatic hypovolemia, and those prone to falls. The other choices are less likely to present with orthostatic hypotension. A spinal injury, altered mental status, and acute deep vein thrombosis are not directly associated with the immediate need for orthostatic hypotension measurement.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access