Nursing Elites

1. The BRAT diet is often prescribed for patients with gastroenteritis. This acronym stands for:

• A. Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, and Toast
• B. Bread, Rice, Apricots, and Tapioca
• C. Bananas, Rolls, Apricots, and Toast
• D. Bananas, Rolls, Applesauce, and Tapioca

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The BRAT diet, which stands for Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, and Toast, is commonly recommended for patients with gastroenteritis. These easily digestible foods help firm up stools due to their low fiber content and provide essential nutrients lost during vomiting and diarrhea. Choice B is incorrect because it includes apricots, which are not part of the traditional BRAT diet. Choice C is incorrect as it includes rolls, which are not typically included in the BRAT diet. Choice D is incorrect as it includes tapioca, which is not part of the traditional BRAT diet. Therefore, the correct answer is Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, and Toast.

2. When teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition, what should the nurse emphasize?

• A. Eating three balanced meals a day
• B. Adding complex carbohydrates
• C. Avoiding very heavy meals
• D. Limiting sodium intake to 7 g per day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to emphasize avoiding very heavy meals. Eating large, heavy meals can divert blood away from the heart for digestion, potentially endangering clients with coronary artery disease. This practice may lead to an increased risk of plaque accumulation in the arteries, potentially obstructing the delivery of blood and oxygen to vital organs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While eating three balanced meals a day, adding complex carbohydrates, and limiting sodium intake are generally good dietary practices, they are not the primary focus when teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition. The emphasis should be on avoiding heavy meals that can strain the cardiovascular system.

3. Which of the following is the most appropriate example of anticipatory guidance for a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture?

• A. Changes associated with puberty
• B. Driving and staying safe
• C. The health hazards of smoking
• D. Social media influences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticipatory guidance is an educational process that provides information important to a client's situation. When considering a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture, the most suitable anticipatory guidance would be regarding driving and staying safe. This guidance is crucial as it is age-appropriate and relevant to preventing future injuries. Choices A, C, and D are less pertinent in this scenario. Changes associated with puberty, health hazards of smoking, and social media influences may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a 16-year-old with an ankle fracture.

4. Your patient has been diagnosed with a left ankle sprain. On the discharge instructions, the physician has prescribed the RICE protocol. This acronym stands for:

• A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
• B. Radiology, Ice, Compression, Elevation
• C. Rest, Ice, Cast, Elevation
• D. Radiology, Ice, Cast, Elevation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. This acronym, RICE, is commonly used for the treatment of injuries like an ankle sprain. Rest allows the injured area to heal, Ice helps reduce swelling and pain (20 minutes on each hour while awake), Compression is usually achieved with an elastic bandage to minimize swelling, and Elevation of the foot above the level of the heart assists in reducing swelling and promoting healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they include irrelevant terms like Radiology and Cast, which are not part of the standard treatment protocol for an ankle sprain.

5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
• B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
• C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
• D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.

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