Nursing Elites

1. What is involved in obtaining informed consent?

• A. An explanation of the reasons for the procedure
• B. A signature on a form indicating the client agrees to the procedure
• C. A statement affirming liability if complications arise during the procedure
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent involves providing the client with an explanation of the reasons for the procedure, the potential risks, benefits, and available alternatives. It is essential for the healthcare provider to ensure that the client understands the information provided before agreeing to the procedure. While obtaining a signature on a consent form is part of the process, it is not the sole indicator of informed consent. Option C, which mentions liability statements, is incorrect as informed consent focuses on ensuring the client understands the procedure, not on affirming liability. Therefore, the correct answer is the explanation of the reasons for the procedure.

2. You are creating a teaching plan for a patient with newly diagnosed migraine headaches. Which key item should NOT be included in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods that contain tyramine, such as alcohol and aged cheese.
• B. Avoid drugs such as Tagamet, nitroglycerin, and Nifedipine.
• C. Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician.
• D. A potential side effect of medications is rebound headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician. Medications such as estrogen supplements may actually trigger a migraine headache attack. Fluctuations in estrogen, such as before or during menstrual periods, pregnancy, and menopause, seem to trigger headaches in many women. Choices A and B are important to include in the teaching plan for a patient with migraines as avoiding foods containing tyramine and certain drugs can help prevent migraine triggers. Choice D is also relevant as it is essential for the patient to be aware of potential side effects of medications, including rebound headaches.

3. What does an anti-kickback statute prevent?

• A. It prevents healthcare workers from providing food or hosting parties to celebrate special occasions at work.
• B. It promotes thorough and complete documentation when a client becomes injured.
• C. It forbids giving or accepting gifts to promote or provide referrals for certain services.
• D. It prevents physicians from ordering treatments that may require nursing care beyond the usual amount.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An anti-kickback statute aims to prevent healthcare providers, clients, consultants, or related organizations from giving or accepting gifts to reward others for referrals of certain services. Choice A is incorrect because providing food or hosting parties at work is not the primary focus of anti-kickback statutes. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains more to documentation practices rather than gift-giving. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to the scope of physician orders and nursing care, not gift exchanges for referrals. The correct answer, as stated, aligns with the purpose of anti-kickback statutes to prevent improper incentives in healthcare relationships.

4. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:

• A. Excessive fetal weight
• B. Low blood sugar levels
• C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
• D. Progressive placental insufficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.

5. You are caring for an infant who is just about 12 months old. Which assessment data is normal for the infant at this age?

• A. The infant had doubled their birth weight at twelve months.
• B. The infant had tripled their birth weight at twelve months.
• C. The mother reports that the infant is drinking 60 mLs per kilogram of its body weight.
• D. The infant had grown � inch since last month.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The normal assessment data for the infant at 12 months of age is that the infant has doubled their birth weight at 12 months of age. The mother's reports that the infant is drinking 60 mLs per kilogram of its body weight and the fact that the infant had grown � inch since last month are not normal assessment data. Infants are fed breast milk or formula every two to four hours with a total daily intake of 80 to 100 mLs per kilogram of body weight. As the neonate grows, they gain five to seven ounces during the first six months and then they double their birth weight during the first year; the head circumference increases a half inch each month for six months and then two tenths of an inch until the infant is one year of age. Similarly, the height or length of the newborn increases an inch a month for the first 6 months and then 1/2 inch a month until the infant is 1 year of age.

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