NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. You have noticed that the last several patients you have cared for have had questionable blood pressure readings from their arterial lines. When checked against cuff pressures, a discrepancy has been noted, and further investigation has revealed faulty transducers. This is not the first product issue with this company. What positive step could you take to help resolve this situation?
- A. Use the old stock from a previous company
- B. Verify the cuff pressures every hour to ensure accuracy
- C. Notify the risk manager
- D. Form a peer workgroup to evaluate new products
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Forming a peer workgroup to evaluate new products would be an excellent opportunity for collaboration among peers, management, and the purchasing department. When clinicians are engaged to work toward solutions that address patient care issues, they experience more empowerment and control over their work environments. Choice A is incorrect because using old stock from a previous company does not address the root cause of the faulty transducers from the current company. Choice B is incorrect as verifying cuff pressures every hour does not directly address the issue of faulty transducers. Choice C is less effective than forming a peer workgroup as it involves only notifying the risk manager without involving a collaborative effort to resolve the product issue.
2. Which of the following tasks may be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel?
- A. Cleansing a wound with peroxide
- B. Irrigating a colostomy
- C. Assisting with performing incentive spirometry
- D. Removing a saline-lock IV
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Certain tasks can be safely delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel to assist nurses in their workload. Tasks that involve routine activities like incentive spirometry can be delegated. Unlicensed assistive personnel can assist clients with incentive spirometry, helping in promoting lung expansion and preventing respiratory complications. Cleansing a wound with peroxide (Choice A) and irrigating a colostomy (Choice B) involve more complex procedures that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers due to the risk of infection and potential complications. Removing a saline-lock IV (Choice D) requires specialized training and should only be performed by licensed personnel to prevent complications and ensure patient safety. The nurse remains responsible for delegating tasks appropriately and overseeing the care provided by unlicensed assistive personnel.
3. A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?
- A. Variable decelerations
- B. Late decelerations
- C. Early decelerations
- D. Accelerations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.
4. A physician is explaining a procedure to a patient that may cure her recurring Staph infection. The doctor explains how the procedure is done, what to expect, the odds of the procedure curing the infection, and possible side effects and risks. The physician is:
- A. Preparing the patient to give informed consent.
- B. Protecting HIPAA by listing all the steps of the procedure with the risks involved.
- C. Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies.
- D. None of the above.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is preparing the patient to give informed consent. Giving informed consent is the process of providing a patient with all necessary information about a medical procedure, including how it's done, what to expect, the likelihood of success, and potential risks and side effects. This allows the patient to make an informed decision about their treatment. Protecting HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) involves safeguarding patient health information and is not directly related to the scenario described. It is important for physicians to inform patients of any alternative therapies available to them to ensure they have all relevant information to make a decision regarding their treatment. Therefore, choice C, 'Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies,' is incorrect. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the physician is indeed preparing the patient for informed consent.
5. Mr. K is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours. Which of the following is a priority topic to instruct this client on admission?
- A. The approximate length of the surgery
- B. The type of anticoagulants that will be prescribed
- C. The time of the next meal of solid food
- D. The length of time until the client can return to work
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority topic to instruct a client admitted for a total knee replacement surgery should be the approximate length of the surgery. Pre-surgical teaching should focus on preparing the client for the upcoming procedure. Providing information about the duration of the surgery can help manage the client's expectations, reduce anxiety, and ensure they are mentally prepared for the operation. While details about post-operative care, anticoagulants, meals, and return to work are important, they are not the immediate priority during the preoperative phase. These aspects can be addressed at a later stage in the client's care journey.
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