of the following which best describes why subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram

1. Why are subdural hemorrhages more common in the elderly?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy resulting from the natural aging process. This atrophy can lead to the stretching of bridging veins, making them more fragile and prone to tearing even with minor trauma. While increased anticoagulant use and a higher risk of falls are common in the elderly, brain atrophy plays a more direct role in the increased incidence of subdural hemorrhages. Inconsistent caregiving, on the other hand, is not a direct cause of subdural hemorrhages but may impact the overall management and outcome of such cases.

2. Administration of hepatitis B vaccine to a healthy 18-year-old patient has been effective when a specimen of the patient's blood reveals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'anti-HBs'. The presence of surface antibody to HBV (anti-HBs) indicates a successful response to the hepatitis B vaccine. Anti-HBs is a marker of immunity and protection against hepatitis B infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) HBsAg indicates current infection with hepatitis B virus, C) anti-HBc IgG suggests past infection or immunity, and D) anti-HBc IgM is a marker of acute hepatitis B infection.

3. The parents of a newborn with a cleft lip are concerned and ask the nurse when the lip will be repaired. With which statement should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cleft-lip repair is typically performed during the first few months of life to address functional and cosmetic concerns at an early stage. Early repair can enhance bonding and facilitate feeding. While revisions may be necessary later on, addressing the cleft lip early is essential. Option A is incorrect as cleft lip repair is a common surgical procedure. Option B is incorrect as repair is typically done earlier than 6 months for better outcomes. Option D is incorrect as the usual timing for repair is within the first months of life, not between 6 months and 2 years.

4. A patient with newly diagnosed lung cancer tells the nurse, 'I don't think I'm going to live to see my next birthday.' Which response by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's initial response should be to collect more assessment data about the patient's statement. The answer beginning 'Can you tell me what it is' is the most open-ended question and will offer the best opportunity for obtaining more data. The answer beginning 'Are you afraid' implies that the patient thinks that the cancer will be immediately fatal, although the patient's statement may not be related to the cancer diagnosis. The remaining two answers offer interventions that may be helpful to the patient, but more assessment is needed to determine whether these interventions are appropriate.

5. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.

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