Nursing Elites

1. Mr. K is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours. Which of the following is a priority topic to instruct this client on admission?

• A. The approximate length of the surgery
• B. The type of anticoagulants that will be prescribed
• C. The time of the next meal of solid food
• D. The length of time until the client can return to work

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority topic to instruct a client admitted for a total knee replacement surgery should be the approximate length of the surgery. Pre-surgical teaching should focus on preparing the client for the upcoming procedure. Providing information about the duration of the surgery can help manage the client's expectations, reduce anxiety, and ensure they are mentally prepared for the operation. While details about post-operative care, anticoagulants, meals, and return to work are important, they are not the immediate priority during the preoperative phase. These aspects can be addressed at a later stage in the client's care journey.

2. A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.

3. What action by the nurse will be most effective in decreasing the spread of pertussis in a community setting?

• A. Providing supportive care to patients diagnosed with pertussis
• B. Teaching family members about the importance of careful handwashing
• C. Teaching patients about the necessity of adult pertussis immunizations
• D. Encouraging patients to complete the prescribed course of antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most effective action by the nurse to decrease the spread of pertussis in a community setting is to teach patients about the necessity of adult pertussis immunizations. The increased rate of pertussis in adults is often attributed to waning immunity after childhood immunization. Immunization is highly effective in protecting communities from infectious diseases. While teaching about handwashing is important for overall infection control, pertussis is primarily spread through respiratory droplets and contact with secretions. Providing supportive care does not significantly impact the disease course or transmission risk. Encouraging completion of antibiotics may help reduce transmission, but patients likely have already spread the disease by the time the diagnosis is made. Therefore, the emphasis should be on prevention through immunization to reduce the spread of pertussis.

4. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

5. A client with schizophrenia seems to stop focusing during a conversation with a nurse and begins looking at the ceiling and talking to themselves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the interview at this point and resume later when the client is better able to concentrate
• B. Ask the client, 'Are you seeing something on the ceiling?'
• C. Tell the client, 'You seem to be looking at something on the ceiling. I see something there, too.'
• D. Continue the interview without commenting on the client's behavior

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia experiences a break in reality like staring at the ceiling and talking to themselves, the nurse should ask directly about the hallucination, as stated in choice B. By doing so, the nurse can assess the situation, identify the client's needs, and evaluate any potential risk for injury. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Stopping the interview (choice A) may not address the immediate concern of the hallucination. Providing false reassurance (choice C) or ignoring the behavior (choice D) does not actively address the client's altered perception of reality.

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