NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A new mother has some questions about phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?
- A. A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.
- B. The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid
- C. Mental deficits are often present with PKU
- D. The effects of PKU are reversible
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the levels of phenylalanine (a building block of proteins) in the blood. If PKU is not treated, phenylalanine can build up to harmful levels in the body, causing intellectual disability and other serious health problems. The signs and symptoms of PKU vary from mild to severe. The most severe form of this disorder is known as classic PKU. Infants with classic PKU appear normal until they are a few months old. Without treatment, these children develop a permanent intellectual disability. Seizures, delayed development, behavioral problems, and psychiatric disorders are also common. Untreated individuals may have a musty or mouse-like odor as a side effect of excess phenylalanine in the body. Children with classic PKU tend to have lighter skin and hair than unaffected family members and are also likely to have skin disorders such as eczema. The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life (via Genetic Home Reference).
2. What is the purpose of performing quality control?
- A. Create a paper trail to show that the laboratory is compliant with OSHA standards for quality control.
- B. Improve the odds that the results reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible.
- C. Be required by law to be part of a quality assurance program.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of performing quality control is to enhance the accuracy and reliability of test results. Quality controls are crucial for ensuring the reliability of each analyte tested. While quality control is not mandated by specific laws, accrediting bodies often require it to maintain accreditation. Creating a paper trail and legal requirements are not the primary objectives of quality control, making choices A and C incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is to improve the accuracy and reliability of reported test results.
3. According to HIPAA, which of the following is considered an individual right for privacy of a client's protected health information?
- A. The right to receive a copy of the organization's privacy practices
- B. The right to receive medical bills for care received
- C. The right to change personal health information
- D. An understanding that protected health information will only be used in regards to client treatments
Correct answer: A
Rationale: According to HIPAA, individuals receiving care at healthcare facilities have rights surrounding their protected health information. One of these rights is to receive a copy of the organization's privacy practices, which outlines how their health information will be used and protected. This ensures transparency and allows individuals to understand how their information is handled. The other choices are incorrect because while individuals have the right to access their health information, receive explanations of how it is used, and ensure its confidentiality, receiving medical bills or changing personal health information are not specifically outlined as rights related to the privacy of protected health information.
4. Albert is a patient in the hospital who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. After the pre-operative visit from the anesthesia staff member who has obtained surgical consent, Albert asks for an explanation of what type of surgery he is going to have. He states that he's not sure what he just signed. What is your best response?
- A. Don't worry, they'll explain it in the operating room.
- B. It's standard procedure to get the consent; you don't need to worry.
- C. Let me ask the nurse anesthetist to come back and explain it further.
- D. Someone will review it with you prior to surgery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to ensure that the patient fully understands the nature of the surgery they are about to undergo. If the patient expresses uncertainty about the procedure they signed consent for, it indicates a lack of informed consent, which is essential before any surgery. By requesting the nurse anesthetist to return and provide a more detailed explanation, the patient can make an informed decision. Choices A, B, and D do not address the issue of the patient's lack of understanding and the need for informed consent, making them incorrect. Option C is the best course of action to rectify the situation and ensure the patient's understanding and consent are properly obtained.
5. What question must the nurse ask when formulating a nursing diagnosis?
- A. What diagnosis did the physician make for this client?
- B. What is the issue that I can solve for this client?
- C. What physician orders will resolve this issue?
- D. What underlying disease does this client have?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When formulating a nursing diagnosis, the nurse should focus on identifying the client's specific health problems that can be addressed through nursing interventions. The correct answer emphasizes the nurse's role in identifying and addressing client-specific issues through nursing care. Choice A is incorrect because nursing diagnoses are distinct from medical diagnoses made by physicians. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on physician orders rather than the nurse's role in diagnosing and addressing client problems. Choice D is incorrect because it pertains to identifying underlying diseases, which is not the primary focus of nursing diagnoses.
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