Nursing Elites

1. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

2. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

3. What is involved in obtaining informed consent?

• A. An explanation of the reasons for the procedure
• B. A signature on a form indicating the client agrees to the procedure
• C. A statement affirming liability if complications arise during the procedure
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent involves providing the client with an explanation of the reasons for the procedure, the potential risks, benefits, and available alternatives. It is essential for the healthcare provider to ensure that the client understands the information provided before agreeing to the procedure. While obtaining a signature on a consent form is part of the process, it is not the sole indicator of informed consent. Option C, which mentions liability statements, is incorrect as informed consent focuses on ensuring the client understands the procedure, not on affirming liability. Therefore, the correct answer is the explanation of the reasons for the procedure.

4. The OR nursing staff are preparing a client for a surgical procedure. The anesthesiologist has given the client medications, and the client has entered the induction stage of anesthesia. The nursing staff can expect which of the following symptoms and activities from the client during this time?

• A. Irregular breathing patterns
• B. Minimal heartbeat, dilated pupils
• C. Relaxed muscles, regular breathing, constricted pupils
• D. Euphoria, drowsiness, dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the induction stage of anesthesia, the client may exhibit symptoms like euphoria, drowsiness, or dizziness. This stage occurs after the administration of medications by the anesthesiologist and ends when the client loses consciousness. Choice A is incorrect as irregular breathing patterns are not typically associated with the induction stage. Choice B is incorrect as minimal heartbeat and dilated pupils are not commonly observed during this stage. Choice C is incorrect as relaxed muscles, regular breathing, and constricted pupils are not indicative of the induction stage of anesthesia.

5. What does the 'B' in the SBAR acronym stand for?

• A. Background
• B. Basic
• C. Beginning
• D. Break

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 'B' in the SBAR acronym stands for Background. SBAR is a standardized communication tool used in healthcare to effectively communicate critical information. In this context, 'Background' refers to providing relevant information about the patient's history, current status, and any other pertinent details. This information helps ensure clear and concise communication between healthcare providers, enhancing patient care. Choice B, 'Basic,' is incorrect as the 'B' specifically emphasizes the detailed background information. Choices C and D, 'Beginning' and 'Break,' are not accurate in the context of the SBAR communication tool.

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