Nursing Elites

1. Improper placement of the hands under the rib cage when performing the Heimlich maneuver could result in:

• A. damage to the manubrium of the sternum.
• B. damage to the xiphoid process.
• C. damage to the coccyx.
• D. None of the above is possible, even with improper hand placement.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The xiphoid process is a small, cartilaginous extension at the inferior end of the sternum. Placing the hands improperly during the Heimlich maneuver too close to this process can result in it breaking off and potentially causing damage to internal organs. Choices A and C are incorrect because the manubrium of the sternum and the coccyx are not in the area where the hands would typically be placed during the Heimlich maneuver.

2. Which playroom activities should the nurse organize for a small group of 7-year-old hospitalized children?

• A. Sports and games with rules.
• B. Finger paints and water play.
• C. "Dress-up"? clothes and props.
• D. Chess and television programs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For 7-year-old children, play serves an important role in developing cooperation, logical reasoning, and social skills. Organizing sports and games with rules is beneficial as it helps children understand the importance of rules, promotes teamwork, and fosters social interactions. Finger paints and water play, while fun, may not target the specific developmental needs of this age group. Similarly, 'Dress-up' clothes and props can encourage imaginative play but may not necessarily promote cooperation and logical reasoning. Chess and television programs are more suited for older children and may not engage 7-year-olds as effectively in developing the desired skills.

3. When cleansing the genital area during perineal care, the nurse should _____________.

• A. cleanse the penis with a circular motion starting from the base and moving toward the tip.
• B. replace the foreskin after it has been pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
• C. cleanse the rectal area first and then clean the patient's genital area.
• D. use the same area on the washcloth for each washing and rinsing stroke for a female resident.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During perineal care, when cleansing the genital area of an uncircumcised male patient, it is crucial to retract the foreskin to clean the area underneath. This helps in the removal of smegma, a substance that can accumulate and lead to bacterial growth and infection if not cleaned properly. The foreskin should then be replaced back to its original position after cleaning to ensure proper hygiene and prevent any potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific care required for an uncircumcised penis, which involves retracting and replacing the foreskin.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?

• A. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain
• B. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia
• C. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102°F (38.8°C)
• D. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing patient assessments, the nurse should address the patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an elevated oral temperature of 102°F (38.8°C) first. This presentation suggests a potential infection, which is critical to address promptly in a patient with liver disease. An infection in a patient with cirrhosis can quickly progress to severe complications. The other options, such as chronic pancreatitis with abdominal pain, compensated cirrhosis with anorexia, and post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy with shoulder pain, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation requiring urgent assessment compared to a possible infection in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites.

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