Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?

• A. Retractions
• B. Elongated expiratory phase
• C. Stridor
• D. Expiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

2. What is an attack using microorganisms such as bacteria or viral agents with the intent to harm others called?

• A. Assimilation
• B. Defense intervention
• C. Bioterrorism
• D. Environmental remediation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bioterrorism is the act of using harmful agents like bacteria or viruses with the intention to harm others. In the context of healthcare, nurses may be involved in disaster response if bioterrorism weapons affect the community. Choice A, assimilation, refers to the process of absorbing and integrating information or ideas. Choice B, defense intervention, does not specifically relate to the intentional use of microorganisms to harm others. Choice D, environmental remediation, involves the process of cleaning up pollution or contamination in the environment, which is unrelated to the deliberate use of pathogens for harmful purposes.

3. A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Orthopnea
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.

4. When assessing a patient's pulse, which of the following characteristics would the nurse also notice?

• A. Force
• B. Pallor
• C. Capillary refill time
• D. Timing in the cardiac cycle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient's pulse, the nurse should observe characteristics such as rate, rhythm, and force. Force refers to the strength or amplitude of the pulse, which provides important information about cardiac output. Pallor is the paleness of the skin and is not directly related to pulse assessment. Capillary refill time is used to assess peripheral perfusion and is not specifically part of pulse assessment. Timing in the cardiac cycle is a broader concept and not a characteristic directly assessed during a pulse examination. Therefore, choice A, 'Force,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the standard parameters evaluated during pulse assessment.

5. A patient's urine tests positive for glucose. The doctor asks you to confirm this finding. Which of the following would BEST confirm this finding?

• A. Run the urine on the hand-held glucometer.
• B. Have another MA perform a repeat dipstick test.
• C. Run a Clinitest.
• D. Run an Acetest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To confirm glucosuria, the most appropriate method is to run a Clinitest. Clinitest tablets are specifically designed to detect glucose in urine samples. This test is particularly useful when the urine is discolored, making it challenging to accurately assess the color change.\n Choice A, using a hand-held glucometer, is not the standard method for confirming glucose in urine; these devices are primarily used for blood glucose monitoring.\n Choice B, having another Medical Assistant perform a repeat dipstick test, may not provide a more definitive confirmation as dipstick tests can sometimes yield false positives or be less accurate compared to other methods like the Clinitest.\n Choice D, running an Acetest, is used to detect ketones in the urine, not glucose. Ketones are typically associated with conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis, which is different from glucosuria.

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