which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction

NCLEX-RN

Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions

1. Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?

A. Retractions
B. Elongated expiratory phase
C. Stridor
D. Expiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

3. Patients who cannot move in their bed on their own should be turned at least ________________.

A. once a day
B. twice a day
C. every 2 hours
D. every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients who are unable to move in bed are at high risk of developing pressure ulcers and skin breakdown due to prolonged pressure on specific body areas. Turning these patients at least every 2 hours is crucial to relieve pressure, improve circulation, and prevent skin damage. More frequent turning may be necessary for patients with specific needs, such as those who are incontinent of urine and require additional care. Turning patients less frequently, such as once a day, twice a day, or every 4 hours, increases the risk of developing pressure ulcers and other complications. Therefore, the correct answer is to turn patients who cannot move in their bed on their own every 2 hours.

4. In a patient with acromegaly, which assessment finding will the nurse expect to find?

A. Sternal deformity and hyperextensible joints
B. Growth retardation and a delayed onset of puberty
C. Overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet
D. Increased height and weight and delayed sexual development

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood after normal body growth completion. This hormonal excess leads to overgrowth of bones in the face, head, hands, and feet; however, there is no significant change in height. Stating sternal deformity and hyperextensible joints is incorrect as they are characteristic findings of Marfan syndrome. Growth retardation and delayed onset of puberty are not typical of acromegaly but are seen in hypopituitary dwarfism. Increased height, weight, and delayed sexual development are features of gigantism, not acromegaly. Therefore, the correct assessment finding in a patient with acromegaly would be overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet.

5. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?

A. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled
B. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath
C. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes
D. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2 F (37.8 C)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and action such as oxygen administration to maintain adequate oxygenation. The other patients should also be assessed as soon as possible, but they do not present with an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention like the patient experiencing sudden shortness of breath.