which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions

1. Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

2. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

3. A 6-month-old infant has been brought to the well-child clinic for a checkup. The infant is currently sleeping. What would the nurse do first when beginning the examination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the infant is quiet or sleeping, it is an ideal time to assess the cardiac, respiratory, and abdominal systems. It is recommended not to wake the infant unnecessarily. Auscultating the lungs and heart while the infant is still sleeping allows for a comprehensive assessment without disturbing the infant. Examining the infant's hips prematurely may disrupt the infant's sleep. Starting with an assessment of the eye is not appropriate as it is an invasive procedure and should be performed towards the end of the examination after the non-invasive assessments have been completed.

4. A client is preparing to administer an enema to a 64-year-old client. Which of the following actions of the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering an enema to a client, the nurse should place the client in the Sims' position for easy access. The correct action is to apply lubricating jelly to the tip of the catheter before insertion to facilitate a smoother procedure. It is essential to instill a maximum of 750 to 1000 cc of fluid for an adult client, not just 30cc. Following administration, the nurse should ask the client to hold the solution for at least 5 minutes to allow for the desired effect of the enema. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate action, as choices A, C, and D are incorrect due to inaccuracies in positioning, enema volume, and retention time.

5. The patient with migraine headaches has a seizure. After the seizure, which action can you delegate to the nursing assistant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a patient with migraine headaches has a seizure, it is important to assess their vital signs to monitor their condition. This task can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant as it falls within their scope of practice. Documenting the seizure and performing neurologic checks require a higher level of training and should be done by a nurse or healthcare provider. Restraint should never be used as a first-line intervention after a seizure unless there is an immediate threat to the patient's safety, and it should be done following proper protocols and with appropriate training.

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