Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?

• A. Retractions
• B. Elongated expiratory phase
• C. Stridor
• D. Expiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

2. A 2-year-old child has been brought to the clinic for a well-child checkup. What is the best way for the nurse to begin the assessment?

• A. Ask the parent to place the child on the examining table.
• B. Have the parent remove all of the child's clothing before the examination.
• C. Allow the child to keep a security object such as a toy or blanket during the examination.
• D. Initially focus the interactions on the child, essentially ignoring the parent until the child's trust has been obtained.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best place to examine the toddler is on the parent's lap. Toddlers understand symbols; therefore, a security object is helpful. Initially, the focus is more on the parent, which allows the child to adjust gradually and to become familiar with you. A 2-year-old child does not like to take off his or her clothes. Therefore, ask the parent to undress one body part at a time.

3. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?

• A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
• B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
• C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
• D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.

4. The nurse is developing a plan of care for an infant after surgical intervention for imperforate anus. The nurse should include in the plan that which position is the most appropriate one for the infant in the postoperative period?

• A. Prone position
• B. Supine with no head elevation
• C. Side-lying with the legs extended
• D. Supine with the head elevated 45 degrees

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate position for an infant after surgical intervention for imperforate anus is the prone position. Placing the infant in a prone position helps keep the hips elevated, reducing edema and pressure on the surgical site. This position promotes optimal healing and comfort for the infant. Option B, supine with no head elevation, does not provide the necessary elevation to reduce pressure on the surgical site. Option C, side-lying with the legs extended, does not offer the same benefits as the prone position in terms of reducing pressure on the surgical site. Option D, supine with the head elevated 45 degrees, does not specifically address the need for hip elevation to prevent pressure on the surgical site. Therefore, the correct choice is the prone position for this postoperative care scenario.

5. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

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