Nursing Elites

1. For a 6-year-old child hospitalized with moderate edema and mild hypertension associated with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), which one of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate?

• A. Institute seizure precautions
• B. Weigh the child twice per shift
• C. Encourage the child to eat protein-rich foods
• D. Relieve boredom through physical activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Institute seizure precautions. The severity of the acute phase of AGN is variable and unpredictable; therefore, a child with edema, hypertension, and gross hematuria may be subject to complications, and anticipatory preparation such as seizure precautions is needed. Weighing the child twice per shift may be necessary for monitoring fluid balance but is not specifically related to the complications of AGN. Encouraging the child to eat protein-rich foods is important for overall nutrition but does not directly address the potential complications of AGN. Relieving boredom through physical activity is beneficial for overall well-being but is not the priority in this situation where seizure precautions are essential.

2. Which of these clients is likely to receive sublingual morphine?

• A. A 75-year-old woman in a hospice program
• B. A 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery
• C. A 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia
• D. A 60-year-old man who has a painful incision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a 75-year-old woman in a hospice program. Sublingual morphine is commonly used in hospice care because patients may have difficulty swallowing, and intravenous access can be uncomfortable and not ideal for palliative care. Choice B, a 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery, is less likely to receive sublingual morphine as he may be able to swallow, and other pain management options may be more suitable. Choice C, a 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia, would typically require specific medications targeting neuropathic pain rather than sublingual morphine. Choice D, a 60-year-old man with a painful incision, may benefit from localized pain relief or other systemic pain management options, but sublingual morphine is not usually the first choice for this type of pain.

3. A client in end-stage renal disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about potential complications associated with this procedure. All of the following are complications associated with peritoneal dialysis EXCEPT:

• A. Hypotriglyceridemia
• B. Abdominal hernia
• C. Anorexia
• D. Peritonitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peritoneal dialysis poses risks of various complications, including abdominal hernia, anorexia, peritonitis, and other issues. However, hypotriglyceridemia is not a common complication associated with peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should focus on educating the client about the risks of developing peritonitis, abdominal hernias, anorexia, low back pain, and abdominal bleeding. Monitoring triglyceride levels is essential for managing lipid disorders but is not directly linked to peritoneal dialysis complications.

4. The laboratory has just called with the arterial blood gas (ABG) results on four patients. Which result is most important for the nurse to report immediately to the health care provider?

• A. pH 7.34, PaO2 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, and O2 sat 97%
• B. pH 7.35, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, and O2 sat 95%
• C. pH 7.46, PaO2 90 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and O2 sat 98%
• D. pH 7.31, PaO2 91 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 96%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: pH 7.31, PaO2 91 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 96%. These ABG results indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis, a critical condition that requires immediate attention. In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH. The other options present normal or near-normal ABG values, indicating adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Therefore, these values would not be as urgent to report compared to the patient with respiratory acidosis in option D.

5. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation. One hour later the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client

• A. Has increased airway obstruction
• B. Has improved airway obstruction
• C. Needs to be suctioned
• D. Exhibits hyperventilation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The higher pitched a sound is, the more narrow the airway. Therefore, the obstruction has increased or worsened. With no evidence of secretions, there is no support to indicate the need for suctioning. Wheezes changing from low-pitched to high-pitched and extending throughout exhalation suggest a progression in airway constriction, indicating an increase in airway obstruction. Option B is incorrect because the change in wheezes from low to high pitch does not suggest an improvement in airway obstruction. Option C is incorrect as there is no indication of secretions requiring suctioning. Option D is incorrect as hyperventilation is not typically associated with the described change in wheezes.

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