Nursing Elites

1. A client has no pulse or respirations. After calling for help, what should the nurse's first action be?

• A. Start a peripheral IV
• B. Initiate high-quality chest compressions
• C. Establish an airway
• D. Obtain the crash cart

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client has no pulse or respirations, the initial action recommended by the American Heart Association is to start high-quality chest compressions. This action helps maintain blood flow to vital organs such as the brain until normal heart rhythm is restored. Starting CPR with chest compressions before checking the airway and providing rescue breaths is crucial to improve outcomes. While establishing an airway and obtaining a crash cart are important steps in resuscitation, initiating chest compressions takes precedence to ensure oxygenated blood circulation. Starting with chest compressions applies to adults, children, and infants but not newborns.

2. When analyzing the results of the urinalysis collected preoperatively from a child with epispadias scheduled for surgical repair, which finding should the nurse most likely expect to note?

• A. Hematuria
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Bacteriuria
• D. Glucosuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epispadias is a congenital defect characterized by the abnormal placement of the urethral orifice of the penis, often on the dorsum. This anatomical anomaly predisposes individuals to bacterial entry into the urinary tract, leading to bacteriuria. Hematuria, proteinuria, and glucosuria are not typically associated with epispadias. Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine, proteinuria indicates protein in the urine, and glucosuria is the presence of glucose in the urine, none of which are commonly seen in epispadias.

3. The nurse is counting a client's respiratory rate. During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. Which respiratory rate should the nurse document?

• A. 14
• B. 16
• C. 17
• D. 28

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most accurate respiratory rate is the second count obtained by the nurse, which was not interrupted by coughing. The nurse counted eight respirations over 30 seconds, so doubling this count gives a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute. This calculation is based on the assumption that the client's breathing pattern remained relatively stable during the two 30-second intervals. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate count obtained without interruptions. Choice B (16) is the correct answer as it reflects the uninterrupted count of respirations by the nurse.

4. When assessing a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident, the emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right lung. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient?

• A. Emergency pericardiocentesis
• B. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape
• C. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator
• D. Insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage. Emergency pericardiocentesis is not indicated as the patient's symptoms are not suggestive of cardiac tamponade. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape would not address the underlying issue of a potential pneumothorax or hemothorax. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator is not appropriate in this scenario as the patient is not exhibiting signs of asthma or bronchoconstriction. Therefore, the correct intervention for this patient is the insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system to address the potential pneumothorax or hemothorax.

5. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

• A. Blood sugar check
• B. CT scan
• C. Blood cultures
• D. Arterial blood gases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.

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