the nurse is caring for a 2 year old who is being treated with chelation therapy calcium disodium edetate for lead poisoning the nurse should be alert
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram

1. The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old who is being treated with chelation therapy, calcium disodium edetate, for lead poisoning. The nurse should be alert for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is nephrotoxicity. Calcium disodium edetate, used in chelation therapy for lead poisoning, can lead to kidney toxicity. This is an important side effect to monitor in patients undergoing this treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Neurotoxicity, hepatomegaly, and ototoxicity are not typically associated with calcium disodium edetate therapy for lead poisoning.

2. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use when working with a Jackson-Pratt drain?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A Jackson-Pratt drain is a type of active wound drain that may be placed following a surgical procedure. This drain actively draws excess blood and fluid out of the wound. If clots develop within the tubing, the nurse should strip the tubing by milking it in a direction away from the client. This action helps to ensure the drain remains patent and effective. Option A is incorrect because the tubing should be milked away from the client, not towards. Option B is incorrect as the drain should be emptied based on the healthcare provider's orders, not at a fixed volume. Option D is incorrect because the level of the drain should be below the level of the incision to allow drainage by gravity.

3. A patient who has just been admitted with community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6°F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn). Early initiation of antibiotic therapy is crucial in cases of community-acquired pneumococcal pneumonia to reduce mortality. While providing symptomatic relief with medications like Codeine for cough, Guaifenesin for mucus clearance, and Acetaminophen for fever and pain is important, the priority should be to start antibiotic therapy to target the underlying infection. Piperacillin/tazobactam is an appropriate choice for treating severe community-acquired pneumonia caused by pneumococcal organisms.

4. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.

5. A nurse is educating a patient about bimatoprost (Lumigan) eyedrops for the treatment of Glaucoma. Which of the following indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of the expected outcomes following treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glaucoma cannot be cured, just treated. Treatment revolves around preventing further deterioration.

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