NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old who is being treated with chelation therapy, calcium disodium edetate, for lead poisoning. The nurse should be alert for which of the following side effects?
- A. Neurotoxicity
- B. Hepatomegaly
- C. Nephrotoxicity
- D. Ototoxicity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is nephrotoxicity. Calcium disodium edetate, used in chelation therapy for lead poisoning, can lead to kidney toxicity. This is an important side effect to monitor in patients undergoing this treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Neurotoxicity, hepatomegaly, and ototoxicity are not typically associated with calcium disodium edetate therapy for lead poisoning.
2. The patient's symptoms, lack of antibodies for hepatitis, and the abrupt onset of symptoms suggest toxic hepatitis, which can be caused by commonly used over-the-counter drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol). Travel to a foreign country and a history of IV drug use are risk factors for viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use does not cause the symptoms listed.
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Temperature
- C. Activity level
- D. Albumin level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. In this case, monitoring the albumin level is crucial to assess the patient's fluid balance and potential for edema. While hemoglobin, temperature, and activity level are important parameters to monitor in a patient's assessment, they are not directly associated with the patient's current symptoms of toxic hepatitis and edema development. Therefore, the correct choice is the albumin level.
3. The physician has decided to perform a thoracentesis based on Mr. R's assessment. Which of the following actions from the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Instruct the client not to talk during the procedure
- B. Assist the client to sit upright or slightly lean forward
- C. Insert a 20-gauge needle just above the 4th intercostal space
- D. Connect the needle to suction to remove fluid that has collected in the pleural space
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to talk during the procedure. This is important to prevent air from being drawn into the pleural space during the thoracentesis. Choice B is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright or slightly leaning forward during the procedure to facilitate access to the pleural space. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should not perform the thoracentesis procedure, which involves inserting a needle into the pleural space - this is the physician's responsibility. Choice D is incorrect as connecting the needle to suction to remove fluid is not the appropriate procedure for a thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is typically done to remove fluid or air for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, not to connect to suction to remove fluid that has collected in the pleural space.
4. To detect possible complications in a patient with severe cirrhosis who has bleeding esophageal varices, it is most important for the nurse to monitor
- A. bilirubin levels.
- B. ammonia levels.
- C. potassium levels.
- D. prothrombin time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a patient with severe cirrhosis and bleeding esophageal varices, monitoring ammonia levels is crucial. Severe liver dysfunction impairs the metabolism of protein in the GI tract, leading to increased ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Monitoring bilirubin levels is important for assessing liver function and jaundice but may not directly reflect the risk of complications from bleeding esophageal varices. Potassium levels are important but not the most critical in this scenario. Prothrombin time is essential for evaluating coagulation status but does not directly relate to the risk of complications from bleeding esophageal varices in this patient.
5. Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider about a patient with acute cholecystitis?
- A. The patient's urine is bright yellow
- B. The patient's stools are tan colored
- C. The patient has increased pain after eating
- D. The patient complains of chronic heartburn
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient's stools are tan colored. Tan or grey stools indicate biliary obstruction, which requires rapid intervention to resolve in a patient with acute cholecystitis. This change in stool color is a critical sign that the healthcare provider needs to be informed about promptly. The other choices are less concerning and may be common symptoms in patients with acute cholecystitis, but tan-colored stools specifically indicate a potential serious complication that warrants immediate attention.
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