a 1 year old child is diagnosed with intussusception and the mother of the child asks the student nurse to describe the disorder which statement by th
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NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. A 1-year-old child is diagnosed with intussusception, and the mother of the child asks the student nurse to describe the disorder. Which statement by the student nurse indicates correct understanding of this disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition in which a proximal segment of the bowel telescopes or prolapses into a distal segment of the bowel. This leads to bowel obstruction and potential ischemia. It is not an acute bowel obstruction, as the obstruction is caused by the telescoping of bowel segments rather than a blockage in the bowel lumen. Intussusception is not primarily an inflammatory process; instead, it is a mechanical issue involving bowel invagination. Choice A is incorrect as it does not accurately describe the pathophysiology of intussusception. Choice C is incorrect because it presents the opposite scenario of what happens in intussusception.

2. An alcoholic and homeless patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention by the nurse will be most effective in ensuring adherence with the treatment regimen?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Directly observed therapy is the most effective means for ensuring compliance with the treatment regimen for a homeless patient with active tuberculosis. By arranging a daily noon meal at a community center where the drug will be administered, the nurse ensures that the patient is available to receive the medication and can directly observe the patient taking it. This method helps address the challenges faced by homeless individuals, such as lack of a stable living situation. The other options, such as having a friend administer the medication, giving written instructions, or educating about infecting others, may not be as effective in ensuring adherence, especially in the case of a homeless individual with alcoholism.

3. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

4. A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical information to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient diagnosed with both HIV and active TB disease is that the patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection. This is crucial because drug interactions can occur between antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and medications used to treat TB. By informing the healthcare provider about the antiretroviral therapy, potential interactions can be assessed and managed effectively to optimize patient care. The other data provided, such as the Mantoux test result, chest x-ray findings, and presence of blood-tinged mucus, are important clinical information but are expected in a patient with coexisting HIV and TB and do not directly impact potential drug interactions between antiretrovirals and TB medications.

5. Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention. Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.

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