a 1 year old child is diagnosed with intussusception and the mother of the child asks the student nurse to describe the disorder which statement by th
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NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. A 1-year-old child is diagnosed with intussusception, and the mother of the child asks the student nurse to describe the disorder. Which statement by the student nurse indicates correct understanding of this disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition in which a proximal segment of the bowel telescopes or prolapses into a distal segment of the bowel. This leads to bowel obstruction and potential ischemia. It is not an acute bowel obstruction, as the obstruction is caused by the telescoping of bowel segments rather than a blockage in the bowel lumen. Intussusception is not primarily an inflammatory process; instead, it is a mechanical issue involving bowel invagination. Choice A is incorrect as it does not accurately describe the pathophysiology of intussusception. Choice C is incorrect because it presents the opposite scenario of what happens in intussusception.

2. A 25-year-old male client has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and will take levothyroxine (Synthroid) 50 mcg/day by mouth. As part of the teaching plan, the nurse emphasizes that this medication:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that levothyroxine (Synthroid) should be taken in the morning. Taking it in the morning can help prevent interference with the client's sleeping pattern, as one of the side effects of levothyroxine is insomnia. Choice B is incorrect because levothyroxine is actually used to treat hypothyroidism and can help increase energy levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement for levothyroxine to be stored in a dark container. Choice D is incorrect because levothyroxine is more likely to increase heart rate rather than decrease it.

3. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old on admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a child of this age, this is adequate output, yet does not suggest overload. Disruption of sodium-ATPase activity presumably causes an intracellular sodium shift which contributes to hypovolemia and cellular edema. Heat injury also initiates the release of inflammatory and vasoactive mediators. These mediators are responsible for local vasoconstriction, systemic vasodilation, and increased transcapillary permeability. Increase in transcapillary permeability results in a rapid transfer of water, inorganic solutes, and plasma proteins between the intravascular and interstitial spaces.

4. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.

5. A patient in the emergency room has a fractured left elbow and presents with an unequal radial pulse, swelling, and numbness in the left hand after waiting for 5 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an IV in the other arm. In this scenario, the patient is showing signs of Acute Compartment Syndrome, a serious condition that occurs due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage. Starting an IV is crucial as the patient may require emergency surgery, such as a fasciotomy, to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications. Placing the patient in a supine position, asking about pain levels, or wrapping the fractured area, though important, are not the priority interventions in this critical situation where immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent irreversible damage or loss of limb.

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