NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. After assessing Mr. B, what is the initial action of the nurse?
- A. Immediately place the client in a negative-pressure room
- B. Set the client up to receive a bronchoscopy
- C. Contact the physician for antifungal medications
- D. Administer oxygen and assist the client to sit in the semi-Fowler's position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The first action the nurse should take after assessing Mr. B is to administer oxygen and assist him to sit in the semi-Fowler's position. Administering oxygen helps improve tissue oxygenation, while sitting up in a semi-Fowler's position aids in better breathing and secretion clearance. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room is not the immediate priority unless isolation is needed. Performing a bronchoscopy or contacting the physician for antifungal medications is not the initial step in managing a client with suspected pneumonia.
2. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present in the final half of exhalation. One hour later, the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client:
- A. Has increased airway obstruction.
- B. Has improved airway obstruction.
- C. Needs to be suctioned.
- D. Exhibits hyperventilation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The change from low-pitched wheezes to high-pitched wheezes indicates a shift from larger to smaller airway obstruction, suggesting increased narrowing of the airways. This change signifies a progression or worsening of the airway obstruction. The absence of evidence of secretions does not support the need for suctioning. Hyperventilation is characterized by rapid and deep breathing, which is not indicated by the information provided in the question.
3. A 55-year-old patient admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice and nausea has abnormal liver function studies, but serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Is there any history of IV drug use?
- B. Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?
- C. Are you taking corticosteroids for any reason?
- D. Have you recently traveled to a foreign country?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask in this scenario is whether the patient uses any over-the-counter drugs. The patient's symptoms, negative serologic testing for viral hepatitis, and sudden onset of symptoms point towards toxic hepatitis, which can be triggered by commonly used over-the-counter medications like acetaminophen (Tylenol). Asking about IV drug use is relevant for viral hepatitis, not toxic hepatitis. Inquiring about recent travel to a foreign country is more pertinent to potential exposure to infectious agents causing viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use is not typically associated with the symptoms described in the case.
4. What is the cause of meningitis that is fatal in half of the infected patients?
- A. Virus
- B. Bacteria
- C. Fungus
- D. Noninfectious agent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is caused by bacterial pathogens such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Neisseria meningitidis. These bacteria commonly lead to acute onset meningitis, presenting with symptoms like fever, stiff neck, and altered consciousness. The statement that bacterial meningitis is fatal in about 50% of cases is accurate, making it a serious and life-threatening condition. Viruses can also cause meningitis, but they are not typically associated with the high fatality rate seen in bacterial meningitis. Fungal meningitis is less common and usually affects individuals with weakened immune systems. Noninfectious agents do not cause meningitis.
5. A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?
- A. compound fracture of the fibula
- B. a partial break in a long bone
- C. fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist
- D. Colles fracture of the tibia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.
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