the nurse is creating a plan of care for a 10 year old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis what is the priority nursing intervention
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. The nurse is creating a plan of care for a 10-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the acute phase of glomerulonephritis, promoting bed rest is a priority to reduce stress on the kidneys and promote recovery. As the condition improves, activity can be gradually increased. Restricting oral fluids is not recommended as maintaining adequate hydration is crucial. Allowing the child to play quietly can be beneficial but is not the priority over rest during the acute phase. Encouraging visits from friends may disrupt the rest needed for recovery, so visitors should be limited.

2. A victim of domestic violence states, 'If I were better, I would not have been beaten.' Which feeling best describes what the victim may be experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is self-blame. In this scenario, the victim is attributing the abuse to their own inadequacies or faults, thinking that if they were different, the abuse would not occur. This is a common response seen in victims of domestic violence, where they wrongly internalize the blame for the abuser's actions. Fear (Choice A) is a valid emotion, but in this case, the victim is not expressing fear but rather self-blame. Helplessness (Choice B) is also a common feeling in victims of domestic violence, but in this specific statement, the victim is demonstrating self-blame. Rejection (Choice D) does not accurately reflect the victim's statement and emotional response in the given scenario.

3. A client is brought into the emergency department after finishing a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. The client is experiencing dyspnea, chest tightness, and agitation. Her blood pressure is 88/58, she has generalized hives over her body, and her lips and tongue are swollen. After the nurse calls for help, what is the next appropriate action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction will likely present with rash or hives, swelling of the lips, face, or tongue, hypotension, or dyspnea. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of anaphylaxis with dyspnea, chest tightness, hives, hypotension, and swelling of the lips and tongue. The next appropriate action would be to administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine intramuscularly. Epinephrine helps relax the muscles of the airway, improve breathing, and increase oxygenation, which is crucial in managing anaphylaxis. Starting an IV and administering fluids can be important but not the immediate priority. Diphenhydramine may be used as an adjunct therapy but should not delay the administration of epinephrine in the acute phase of anaphylaxis. Monitoring the client without providing immediate treatment can lead to a worsening of the anaphylactic reaction, potentially resulting in a life-threatening situation.

4. A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypoxemia interferes with the patient's ability to learn and retain information, so having the patient's caregiver present will increase the likelihood that discharge instructions will be followed. Having the patient repeat the instructions will indicate that the information is understood at the time, but it does not guarantee retention of the information. Giving discharge instructions just before discharge is not ideal as the patient is likely to be distracted and anxious at that time. Teaching the patient about discharge on the day of admission is not recommended because the patient may be more hypoxemic and anxious than usual, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain the information effectively. Therefore, arranging for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching session is the best option to ensure proper compliance and understanding of the discharge instructions.

5. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. The standard treatment for a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is surgical intervention to prevent rupture. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to expect is that the patient will be admitted to the surgical unit, and resection will be scheduled. Observation and medication (Choice A) are not sufficient for a rapidly enlarging aneurysm, and sclerotherapy (Choice B) is not typically used for aortic aneurysms. Discharging the patient home (Choice D) would be inappropriate and dangerous given the risk of rupture.

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