you are taking the history of a 14 year old girl who has a bmi of 18 the girl reports inability to eat induced vomiting and severe constipation which
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.

2. A client has just been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform to prevent transmission to others?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client diagnosed with active tuberculosis should be placed in isolation in a negative-pressure room to prevent transmission of infection to others. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room ensures that air is exhausted to the outside and received from surrounding areas, preventing tuberculin particles from traveling through the ventilation system and infecting others. Initiating standard precautions, as mentioned in choice C, is essential for infection control but is not specific to preventing transmission in the case of tuberculosis. Beginning drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis, as in choice A, is crucial for the treatment of tuberculosis but does not directly address preventing transmission. Placing the client in a positive-pressure room, as in choice B, is incorrect as positive-pressure rooms are used for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent outside pathogens from entering the room, which is not suitable for a client with active tuberculosis.

3. A patient presents with vesicles covering the upper torso. Which of the following situations could cause this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vesicles are fluid-filled blisters. In the context of the upper torso, the presentation of vesicles suggests a second-degree sunburn. Sunburn can cause blistering, leading to the formation of vesicles. Choice A, 'Knife fight,' does not align with the presentation of vesicles on the upper torso due to trauma. Choice B, 'Auto accident,' is more likely to cause abrasions or bruises rather than vesicles. Choice D, 'Fungal infection,' typically presents with other symptoms such as redness, itching, or scaling, but not vesicles on the upper torso.

4. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When the membranes are ruptured for more than 24 hours prior to birth, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, foul-smelling vaginal discharge, and uterine tenderness, is crucial. Option A, 'Altered tissue perfusion,' is not the priority in this scenario as infection risk takes precedence due to the prolonged rupture of membranes. Option B, 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' is less of a priority compared to the immediate risk of infection. Option C, 'High risk for hemorrhage,' is not the priority concern at this time based on the information provided.

5. While taking the health history of a 70-year-old patient being treated for a Duodenal Ulcer, the nurse learns that the patient is complaining of epigastric pain. What assessment finding would the nurse expect to note?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Melena is the passage of black, tarry stools due to the presence of blood in the gastrointestinal tract, usually originating from the upper digestive system. In the context of a Duodenal Ulcer, melena can occur as a result of bleeding in the duodenum or the upper part of the small intestine. This finding is significant as it indicates potential gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a common complication of duodenal ulcers. Nausea (Choice B) is a nonspecific symptom that may be present with various gastrointestinal conditions but is not specific to duodenal ulcers. Hernia (Choice C) involves the protrusion of an organ through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it and is not directly related to the symptoms of a duodenal ulcer. Hyperthermia (Choice D), which refers to an elevated body temperature, is not typically associated with duodenal ulcers unless there are severe complications present.

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