you are taking the history of a 14 year old girl who has a bmi of 18 the girl reports inability to eat induced vomiting and severe constipation which
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.

2. The infection control nurse is assigned to a patient with osteomyelitis related to a heel ulcer. The wound is 5cm in diameter and the drainage saturates the dressing so that it must be changed every hour. What is her priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention for a patient with osteomyelitis related to a heel ulcer, with a wound that saturates the dressing every hour, is to place the patient under contact precautions. Contact precautions are essential when managing infectious wounds to prevent the spread of infection to healthcare workers, other patients, and visitors. Strict aseptic technique (Choice B) should always be used with wound care but is secondary to implementing contact precautions in this scenario. Placing another dressing (Choice C) or elevating the patient's leg (Choice D) may be necessary but do not address the immediate need for infection control measures.

3. What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.

4. A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children, originating in striated (skeletal) muscles and potentially affecting any part of the body. Symptoms vary based on the location of the tumor. In the head or neck area, symptoms may include sudden bulging or swelling of the eyes, conjunctival chemosis, and headache. Rhabdomyosarcoma can also impact organs like the urinary or reproductive system. Common metastatic sites include the lungs. Therefore, the nurse should pay attention to the function of all striated muscles in the child to monitor for any signs or symptoms related to the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as rhabdomyosarcoma primarily involves striated muscles and does not specifically target the cerebellum, kidneys, or leg bones.

5. A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chlamydial infections are one of the most common causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Chlamydia can ascend from the vagina or cervix to the reproductive organs, leading to inflammation and infection. Trichomoniasis, caused by a parasite, typically presents with different symptoms than pelvic inflammatory disease and is not the primary cause. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are bacteria that can cause other types of infections but are not the primary culprits in most cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.

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