NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. Application - The nurse is caring for a patient who has the following labs: Creatinine 2.5mg/dL, WBC 11,000 cells/mL, and Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Based on this information, which of these orders would the nurse question?
- A. Administer 30 Units of Lantus Daily
- B. CT of the spine with contrast
- C. X-ray of the abdomen and chest
- D. Administer heparin subcutaneously 5,000 Units every 12 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to question the order for a CT of the spine with contrast. The patient's elevated creatinine level of 2.5mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function. Contrast agents are nephrotoxic and can further compromise kidney function in patients with existing nephropathy. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid contrast-enhanced imaging studies in patients with impaired renal function. Choice A: Administering 30 Units of Lantus Daily is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values. Choice C: Ordering an X-ray of the abdomen and chest is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values. Choice D: Administering heparin subcutaneously at 5,000 Units every 12 hours is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values.
2. What drives respiration in a patient with advanced chronic respiratory failure?
- A. Hypoxemia
- B. Hypocapnia
- C. Hypercapnia
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In patients with advanced chronic respiratory failure, such as those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the respiratory drive shifts from being primarily stimulated by high levels of carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) to being driven by low oxygen levels (hypoxemia). This shift is due to the body's adaptation to chronic respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia. As a result, hypoxemia becomes the primary stimulus for respiration in these patients. Hypocapnia, a low level of carbon dioxide, is not a common driver of respiration in patients with advanced chronic respiratory failure. Therefore, the correct answer is hypoxemia.
3. A client has no pulse or respirations. After calling for help, what should the nurse's first action be?
- A. Start a peripheral IV
- B. Initiate high-quality chest compressions
- C. Establish an airway
- D. Obtain the crash cart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where a client has no pulse or respirations, the initial action recommended by the American Heart Association is to start high-quality chest compressions. This action helps maintain blood flow to vital organs such as the brain until normal heart rhythm is restored. Starting CPR with chest compressions before checking the airway and providing rescue breaths is crucial to improve outcomes. While establishing an airway and obtaining a crash cart are important steps in resuscitation, initiating chest compressions takes precedence to ensure oxygenated blood circulation. Starting with chest compressions applies to adults, children, and infants but not newborns.
4. A client in the ICU has been intubated and placed on a ventilator. The physician orders synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). Which statement best describes the work of this mode of ventilation?
- A. The ventilator delivers a set rate and tidal volume regardless of whether the client is attempting to breathe
- B. The ventilator coordinates delivered breaths with the client's respiratory efforts
- C. The ventilator provides a supplemental breath for every third breath of the client
- D. The ventilator provides breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) is a ventilation mode that coordinates delivered breaths with the client's own respiratory efforts. This mode allows the client to initiate breaths, with the ventilator providing preset breaths at a controlled rate and volume. Option A is incorrect because in SIMV, the ventilator syncs with the client's respiratory efforts. Option C is incorrect as it does not accurately depict the way SIMV works. Option D is also incorrect as SIMV does not specifically provide breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations. Therefore, the correct answer is B, where the ventilator coordinates breath delivery with the client's breathing efforts.
5. A patient is on bedrest 24 hours after a hip fracture. Which regular assessment or intervention is essential for detecting or preventing the complication of Fat Embolism Syndrome?
- A. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip as tolerated.
- B. Assess the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness.
- C. Assess the pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes.
- D. Administer a stool softener as ordered.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In detecting or preventing Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES), assessing the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness is crucial. Decreased level of consciousness is an early sign of FES due to decreased oxygen levels. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip may not directly relate to FES. Assessing pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes is essential for assessing circulation but not specific to detecting FES. Administering a stool softener, while important for preventing constipation in immobilized patients, is not directly related to detecting or preventing FES.
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