Nursing Elites

1. Application - The nurse is caring for a patient who has the following labs: Creatinine 2.5mg/dL, WBC 11,000 cells/mL, and Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Based on this information, which of these orders would the nurse question?

• A. Administer 30 Units of Lantus Daily
• B. CT of the spine with contrast
• C. X-ray of the abdomen and chest
• D. Administer heparin subcutaneously 5,000 Units every 12 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to question the order for a CT of the spine with contrast. The patient's elevated creatinine level of 2.5mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function. Contrast agents are nephrotoxic and can further compromise kidney function in patients with existing nephropathy. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid contrast-enhanced imaging studies in patients with impaired renal function. Choice A: Administering 30 Units of Lantus Daily is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values. Choice C: Ordering an X-ray of the abdomen and chest is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values. Choice D: Administering heparin subcutaneously at 5,000 Units every 12 hours is not contraindicated based on the provided lab values.

2. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Calcium
• B. Bilirubin
• C. Amylase
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (Choice A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (Choice B) and Potassium (Choice D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.

3. After assessing Mr. B, what is the initial action of the nurse?

• A. Immediately place the client in a negative-pressure room
• B. Set the client up to receive a bronchoscopy
• C. Contact the physician for antifungal medications
• D. Administer oxygen and assist the client to sit in the semi-Fowler's position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first action the nurse should take after assessing Mr. B is to administer oxygen and assist him to sit in the semi-Fowler's position. Administering oxygen helps improve tissue oxygenation, while sitting up in a semi-Fowler's position aids in better breathing and secretion clearance. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room is not the immediate priority unless isolation is needed. Performing a bronchoscopy or contacting the physician for antifungal medications is not the initial step in managing a client with suspected pneumonia.

4. A patient has been taking mood stabilizing medication but is afraid of needles. They ask the nurse what medication would NOT require regular lab testing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Valproic Acid (Depakote)
• B. Clozapine (Clozaril)
• C. Lithium
• D. Risperidone (Risperdal)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Risperidone (Risperdal) because it is the only medication among the options that does not require regular lab testing. Risperidone is not associated with the need for routine blood draws to monitor medication levels or potential side effects. Choices A, B, and C (Valproic Acid, Clozapine, Lithium) are all known to require frequent lab monitoring due to various reasons such as potential toxicity, therapeutic drug levels, or adverse effects on certain organ functions. Therefore, considering the patient's fear of needles and the desire to avoid frequent blood tests, Risperidone would be the most suitable option.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour
• B. Periodic crying and irritability
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The concern is the possibility of hyperkalemia, which could occur with continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output since potassium is excreted via the kidneys. It is crucial to monitor urinary output in pediatric patients receiving potassium-containing IV solutions to prevent electrolyte imbalances and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most critical findings that require immediate reporting. '3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour' may suggest a need for antiemetic therapy or further assessment of the underlying cause but does not pose an immediate risk like the potential electrolyte imbalance from decreased urinary output. 'Periodic crying and irritability' and 'Vigorous sucking on a pacifier' are common behaviors in infants and are not indicative of a critical condition that requires urgent attention in this scenario.

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