a patient has taken an overdose of aspirin which of the following should a nurse must closely monitor during acute management of this patient
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse closely monitor during acute management of this patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the onset of pulmonary edema. In cases of aspirin overdose, metabolic acidosis is a common consequence that can lead to the development of pulmonary edema. Early signs of aspirin poisoning include symptoms like tinnitus, hyperventilation, vomiting, dehydration, and fever. Late signs may manifest as drowsiness, bizarre behavior, unsteady walking, and coma. Aspirin poisoning can cause abnormal breathing that is typically rapid and deep. Pulmonary edema may occur due to increased capillary permeability in the lungs, leading to the leakage of proteins and fluid transudation in renal and pulmonary tissues. Changes in renal tubule permeability can also affect colloid osmotic pressure, potentially contributing to pulmonary edema. Monitoring pulmonary edema is crucial in managing aspirin overdose cases to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because metabolic alkalosis, respiratory alkalosis, and Parkinson's disease type symptoms are not typically associated with aspirin overdose and are not primary concerns in its acute management.

2. A client who has undergone radiation therapy presents with itching, redness, burning pain, and skin sloughing on the chest and abdomen. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client experiencing skin symptoms like redness, itching, burning pain, and sloughing after radiation therapy, it is crucial to maintain proper skin care. Applying ointments, lotions, or powders can worsen the condition by trapping moisture and leading to further skin irritation. The most appropriate intervention is to wash the affected area gently with water to cleanse it without further irritating the skin. Using mild antiseptic soap or talcum powder can also be harsh on the compromised skin. Patting the skin dry helps prevent friction and trauma to the affected area, promoting healing and comfort.

3. A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chlamydial infections are one of the most common causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Chlamydia can ascend from the vagina or cervix to the reproductive organs, leading to inflammation and infection. Trichomoniasis, caused by a parasite, typically presents with different symptoms than pelvic inflammatory disease and is not the primary cause. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are bacteria that can cause other types of infections but are not the primary culprits in most cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.

4. The patient with chronic pancreatitis will be taught to take the prescribed pancrelipase (Viokase)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take pancrelipase (Viokase) with each meal. Pancrelipase is a pancreatic enzyme replacement medication that helps with the digestion of nutrients. Patients with chronic pancreatitis often have difficulty digesting food properly due to insufficient pancreatic enzyme production. Taking pancrelipase with each meal assists in the breakdown of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates consumed during the meal. Option A ('at bedtime') is incorrect because enzymes should be taken with meals to aid in digestion. Option B ('in the morning') is not ideal as it does not ensure optimal enzyme activity during meals. Option D ('for abdominal pain') is incorrect as pancrelipase is not meant to be taken solely for pain relief but rather to aid in digestion.

5. What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.

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