Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following situations might warrant a laboratory magnesium level?

• A. Hyperthyroidism
• B. Arthritis
• C. Ulcerative colitis
• D. Depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ulcerative colitis can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. This condition may impact the absorption of certain nutrients, including magnesium. Therefore, patients with chronic gastrointestinal conditions like ulcerative colitis should be screened for electrolyte imbalances related to impaired digestion. Hyperthyroidism, arthritis, and depression do not typically directly affect magnesium levels in the same way as gastrointestinal conditions like ulcerative colitis.

2. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

3. Which example best describes the concept of beneficence?

• A. A nurse provides pain medication for a client in the recovery room who is experiencing pain
• B. A client has an advanced directive in place stating that he does not want intubation if he needs CPR
• C. At the request of the client, a nurse does not inform the family about his cancer diagnosis
• D. A nurse withholds narcotic medication for a client in pain, knowing that he is currently disoriented

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beneficence is the ethical principle of doing good and acting in the best interest of the client. Providing pain relief to a client in the recovery room who is experiencing pain aligns with beneficence as it promotes the client's well-being and comfort. Choice B is related to autonomy, where the client's wishes regarding treatment are respected. Choice C involves confidentiality and the client's right to privacy. Choice D represents nonmaleficence, as withholding pain medication from a client in pain could cause harm and goes against the principle of doing no harm.

4. Which of the following screening tools have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening for intimate partner violence?

• A. Hurt, Insult, Threaten, and Scream (HITS)
• B. Humiliation, Afraid, Rape, and Kick (HARK)
• C. Slapped, Threatened, and Thrown (STaT)
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above screening tools, including HITS, HARK, and STaT, have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening intimate partner violence, as per the National Preventive Services Task Force. These tools are effective in identifying current or recent intimate partner violence. While the Partner Violence screen may have some predictive value for future intimate partner violence, the question specifically focuses on screening tools with high diagnostic accuracy, making 'All of the above' the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are specific validated screening tools for intimate partner violence, each with its own set of questions that have been shown to be effective in identifying individuals experiencing intimate partner violence. Therefore, 'All of the above' is the most comprehensive and accurate choice for this question.

5. A physician is explaining a procedure to a patient that may cure her recurring Staph infection. The doctor explains how the procedure is done, what to expect, the odds of the procedure curing the infection, and possible side effects and risks. The physician is:

• A. Preparing the patient to give informed consent.
• B. Protecting HIPAA by listing all the steps of the procedure with the risks involved.
• C. Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is preparing the patient to give informed consent. Giving informed consent is the process of providing a patient with all necessary information about a medical procedure, including how it's done, what to expect, the likelihood of success, and potential risks and side effects. This allows the patient to make an informed decision about their treatment. Protecting HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) involves safeguarding patient health information and is not directly related to the scenario described. It is important for physicians to inform patients of any alternative therapies available to them to ensure they have all relevant information to make a decision regarding their treatment. Therefore, choice C, 'Not required to inform the patient of any alternative therapies,' is incorrect. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the physician is indeed preparing the patient for informed consent.

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