Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of intrapersonal conflict?

• A. A nurse feels guilty when she administers essential medication that causes a client to have nausea and vomiting
• B. A nurse is called to testify in court about a client she cared for three years ago
• C. A nurse feels guilty for working overtime
• D. A nurse faces a conflict with a colleague over patient care decisions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intrapersonal conflict involves negative feelings or frustrations within oneself. It may be related to decisions or actions that clash with personal morals or beliefs. Choice A is the correct answer because the nurse is experiencing guilt due to administering medication that causes a client to have negative side effects, which reflects an internal struggle. Choices B, C, and D do not represent intrapersonal conflict. Choice B involves a legal obligation, Choice C is related to external factors like working overtime, and Choice D pertains to a conflict with a colleague.

2. A client with schizophrenia seems to stop focusing during a conversation with a nurse and begins looking at the ceiling and talking to themselves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the interview at this point and resume later when the client is better able to concentrate
• B. Ask the client, 'Are you seeing something on the ceiling?'
• C. Tell the client, 'You seem to be looking at something on the ceiling. I see something there, too.'
• D. Continue the interview without commenting on the client's behavior

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia experiences a break in reality like staring at the ceiling and talking to themselves, the nurse should ask directly about the hallucination, as stated in choice B. By doing so, the nurse can assess the situation, identify the client's needs, and evaluate any potential risk for injury. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Stopping the interview (choice A) may not address the immediate concern of the hallucination. Providing false reassurance (choice C) or ignoring the behavior (choice D) does not actively address the client's altered perception of reality.

3. An occupational health nurse works at a manufacturing plant where there is potential exposure to inhaled dust. Which action, if recommended by the nurse, will be most helpful in reducing the incidence of lung disease?

• A. Treat workers with pulmonary fibrosis.
• B. Teach about symptoms of lung disease.
• C. Require the use of protective equipment.
• D. Monitor workers for coughing and wheezing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prevention of lung disease requires the use of appropriate protective equipment such as masks to reduce exposure to inhaled dust, which is a significant risk factor for lung disease. Teaching about symptoms of lung disease, treating workers with pulmonary fibrosis, and monitoring for coughing and wheezing are important actions for early recognition and treatment of lung disease. However, the most effective strategy to prevent lung damage in this scenario is to require the use of protective equipment to minimize exposure to harmful substances.

4. What is a key principle of patient teaching that must take place to ensure patient safety?

• A. Family members should be present
• B. Teaching must be documented
• C. Understanding must be confirmed
• D. Teaching should be provided by multiple staff members

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A key principle of patient teaching that ensures patient safety is the confirmation of understanding. To ensure patient safety, it is crucial to confirm that the patient comprehends the information provided. This confirmation can be achieved by having the patient repeat back the information or demonstrate understanding through return demonstration. Documenting the patient's understanding is essential to track the effectiveness of the teaching session and ensure that the patient is equipped with the necessary knowledge for their safety. Family members being present or having multiple staff members provide teaching may be beneficial in certain situations, but the primary focus should be on confirming the patient's understanding to enhance safety and promote effective learning.

5. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.

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