an adolescent brings a physicians note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of osgood schlatter disease which
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. An adolescent brings a physician's note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents during the rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle, causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. The condition is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps, such as track and soccer. Choice A is incorrect because Osgood-Schlatter disease is not specifically linked to competitive swimming. Choice B is incorrect as surgical intervention is not usually necessary for this condition. Choice D is incorrect as the student is not trying to avoid physical education but is restricted from participating in sports due to the diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease.

2. The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about chiropractic treatment for illnesses. What should be the focus of the nurse's response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The focus of the nurse's response should be on spinal column manipulation when discussing chiropractic treatment for illnesses. Chiropractic theory emphasizes that misalignment of the vertebrae can interfere with the transmission of mental impulses between the brain and body organs, leading to diseases. Manipulation is aimed at reducing such misalignments, known as subluxations. While mind-body balance and exercise of joints are important aspects of holistic health, in the context of chiropractic treatment, the key intervention is spinal column manipulation to address vertebral misalignments. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary focus of chiropractic treatment.

3. Mr. Y had surgery two days ago and is recovering on the surgical unit of the hospital. Just before lunch, he develops chest pain and difficulties with breathing. His respiratory rate is 32/minute, his temperature is 100.8�F, and he has rales on auscultation. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate in this situation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, mild fever, and rales or crackles on auscultation in a client who had surgery 2 days ago may be indicative of a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should administer oxygen to address his breathing and assist him to a comfortable position to facilitate better oxygenation before contacting the physician. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended in this situation as it may worsen a potential pulmonary embolism by increasing venous return. Contacting the physician for antibiotics is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the breathing difficulty. Decreasing the IV rate is not indicated in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory distress and needs oxygen therapy.

4. Tommy R., your 68-year-old patient, is at risk for falls. He has fallen 3 times in the last month. You should keep Tommy's ______________ in order to prevent him from falling again.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent falls, it is essential to keep the patient's call bell within reach so they can easily call for help when needed. This allows for timely assistance and can prevent falls. While low beds can reduce the severity of injuries in case of a fall, they do not prevent falls from happening. Having family members in the room at all times is not a realistic or practical solution. Side rails can actually increase the severity of falls as patients may attempt to climb over them, and using side rails as fall prevention is considered a restraint practice that can lead to entrapment and other risks.

5. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.

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