an adolescent brings a physicians note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of osgood schlatter disease which
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. An adolescent brings a physician's note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents during the rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle, causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. The condition is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps, such as track and soccer. Choice A is incorrect because Osgood-Schlatter disease is not specifically linked to competitive swimming. Choice B is incorrect as surgical intervention is not usually necessary for this condition. Choice D is incorrect as the student is not trying to avoid physical education but is restricted from participating in sports due to the diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease.

2. Becky is a 17-year-old type I diabetic who has been admitted for her third episode of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) since being diagnosed last year. She states that she hates feeling different from her friends and refuses to take her insulin as recommended. What would be the most helpful action for Becky?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contacting the local support group for diabetic teens would be the most helpful action for Becky. By reaching out to see if another diabetic teenager could provide support, Becky would have the opportunity to connect with someone in her peer group who faces similar challenges. This connection can help reduce her sense of isolation and the feeling of being 'different.' Choice A, 'Scolding her for not taking her insulin,' is inappropriate and could further alienate Becky. It does not address the underlying emotional issues driving her behavior. Choice B, 'Recommending that she use an insulin pump,' does not directly address Becky's emotional struggle with feeling different from her friends. While an insulin pump may be a helpful tool, it does not tackle the root cause of her non-compliance. Choice D, 'Telling her parents they must provide more strict oversight,' focuses on imposing stricter control without addressing Becky's emotional needs or offering peer support, which may not be effective in improving her insulin adherence in the long term.

3. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.

4. A physician has written an order for '2.0 mg MS q 2-4 hr prn pain.' What is the nurse's appropriate response to this order?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The physician's order contains several errors that could lead to potential harm to the client if not addressed. The use of '2.0' involves a trailing decimal point, which may lead to confusion regarding the intended dose of the drug. Additionally, the abbreviation 'MS' is considered a Do Not Use abbreviation by the Joint Commission, as it could refer to morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate, leading to medication errors. While the order indicates the drug should be used for pain, the nurse should contact the physician to clarify the exact dose and specific drug to be administered, ensuring safe and accurate medication administration. Therefore, the correct response is to contact the physician to rewrite the order.

5. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.

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