Nursing Elites

1. After a mastectomy or a hysterectomy, a client may feel incomplete as a woman. Which statement would alert the nurse to this feeling in a client who has undergone a total hysterectomy?

• A. "I don't know who can help me during my recovery."
• B. "I feel washed out; there isn't much left."
• C. "I'm scared about the pain in recovery."
• D. "I can't wait to get home; I so want to see my grandchild."

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is "I feel washed out; there isn't much left." This statement suggests a feeling of emptiness or incompleteness after the surgical procedure. Concern about who can assist during recovery, fear of pain, or excitement to go home and see a grandchild are not indicative of feeling incomplete as a woman after a hysterectomy. These other statements focus on practical concerns, physical discomfort, and positive emotions, respectively.

2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder presents with restlessness and fatigue. Which additional clinical manifestation would the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hoarding
• B. Panic attacks
• C. Excessive worry
• D. Fear of leaving the house

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would monitor for excessive worry. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by physical and cognitive symptoms of chronic or excessive anxiety and worry. Excessive worry is a core feature of generalized anxiety disorder. Hoarding is a symptom of hoarding disorder, not generalized anxiety disorder. Panic attacks are typical of panic disorder, not generalized anxiety disorder. Fear of leaving the house is a characteristic of agoraphobia, which is distinct from generalized anxiety disorder.

3. Which approach is best to use with a client who is angry and agitated?

• A. Confront the client about the behavior.
• B. Turn on the television to distract the client.
• C. Maintain a calm, consistent approach with the client.
• D. Explain to the client why the behavior is unacceptable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with an angry and agitated client, it is crucial to maintain a calm and consistent approach. Consistency allows the client to predict the caregiver's behavior, which can help reduce their anxiety and agitation. Confronting the client about their behavior may escalate the situation and increase their anger. Using distractions like turning on the television is not addressing the underlying issue and may not be effective in calming the client. Explaining to the client why their behavior is unacceptable is not suitable in the moment of agitation, as the client may not be in a state to attend to logical explanations and perceived criticisms should be avoided to prevent further escalation.

4. During a clinic visit, the mother of a 7-year-old reports to the nurse that her child is often awake until midnight playing and is then very difficult to awaken in the morning for school. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain in response to the mother's report?

• A. The occurrence of any episodes of sleep apnea
• B. The child's blood pressure, pulse, and respirations
• C. Length of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep that the child is experiencing
• D. Description of the family's home environment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a school-age child has difficulty going to sleep and waking up in the morning, it is important to assess the family's home environment. This includes factors such as bedtime rituals, noise levels, lighting, use of electronic devices, and overall sleep hygiene practices. Understanding the home environment can help identify issues that may be contributing to the child's sleep problems and guide the development of a plan to promote better sleep habits. Options A, B, and C are less relevant in this scenario. Sleep apnea typically causes daytime fatigue rather than resistance to bedtime. Assessing vital signs like blood pressure, pulse, and respirations is unlikely to provide insights into the child's sleep patterns. Monitoring REM sleep duration is not practical in a clinical setting and may not directly address the reported sleep issues in this case.

5. A client is undergoing treatment for alcoholism. Twelve hours after their last drink, they develop tremors, increased heart rate, hallucinations, and seizures. Which stage of withdrawal is this client experiencing?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In alcohol withdrawal, stage 3 typically begins about 12-48 hours after the last drink. It includes symptoms from stages 1 and 2 like tremors, tachycardia, mild hallucinations, hyperactivity, and confusion. By stage 3, severe hallucinations and seizures can occur. Choice A, stage 1, is too early for the described symptoms. Stage 2, as described, is also too early as it typically occurs within 6-12 hours. Stage 4 is not a recognized stage in alcohol withdrawal protocols.

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