NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. A client comes into the emergency room and asks to see a doctor. He is anxious, visibly upset, and keeps looking behind him to the waiting room. When the nurse asks his chief complaint, he says, 'My roommate is trying to kill me.' Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response of the nurse?
- A. Just wait here and I will notify security.
- B. I'm going to speak with the physician about getting some medication that may help you.
- C. Why is your roommate trying to kill you?
- D. Have you called the police to report this?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Upon initial assessment of a client who appears anxious and upset, with claims that need further exploration, the nurse's initial response should be to gather more information about the situation. By asking 'Why is your roommate trying to kill you?' the nurse shows empathy while trying to understand the patient's perspective. This open-ended question allows the nurse to assess the situation comprehensively. Options A and D jump to conclusions or suggest actions without understanding the situation. Option B focuses solely on medication without addressing the underlying issue. It is crucial to assess the situation further before taking any action or providing treatment.
2. Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?
- A. Individuals with this disorder respond well to small therapeutic groups.
- B. Therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious.
- C. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens increases as therapeutic group involvement increases.
- D. Involvement in small therapeutic groups may decrease the regression and dependency associated with institutionalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.
3. Which of the following is a symptom associated with sensory overload?
- A. Disorientation
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Emotional lability
- D. Depression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Disorientation is a common symptom associated with sensory overload. When an individual experiences sensory overload, their brain may become overwhelmed with excessive information, leading to disorientation. This can manifest as an inability to concentrate, racing thoughts, and restless behavior. Sensory overload occurs when a person is unable to either control the amount of environmental stimuli they are exposed to or process the stimuli effectively. Drowsiness, emotional lability, and depression are not typical symptoms of sensory overload. Drowsiness may indicate fatigue or boredom, emotional lability refers to rapid and exaggerated changes in mood, and depression is a mood disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness.
4. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk of experiencing intimate partner violence?
- A. A 36-year-old woman who is recently divorced
- B. A 22-year-old man who is unemployed but living with friends
- C. A 20-year-old woman who grew up with a psychologically abusive father
- D. A 40-year-old man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intimate partner violence is a serious issue encompassing physical, psychological, or sexual abuse within an intimate relationship. Individuals who have experienced psychological abuse in their upbringing are at a higher risk of becoming victims themselves due to the normalization of abusive behaviors. While factors such as age, mental health conditions, and social support can contribute to vulnerability, growing up in an abusive environment can significantly heighten the risk of intimate partner violence. The other options, such as recent divorce (A), unemployment (B), and schizophrenia diagnosis (D), do not directly correlate with the same level of increased risk associated with a history of psychological abuse.
5. Why is it important for the nurse to inform the family about the client's situation?
- A. To decrease the client's anxiety
- B. To help the family better adapt to necessary role changes
- C. To improve communication between family and nursing staff
- D. To ensure a more relaxed atmosphere for the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: It is crucial for the nurse to inform the family about the client's situation to help them better adapt to necessary role changes. By providing early notification, the family can start preparing for potential adjustments. While reducing the client's anxiety and improving communication with the nursing staff are important, the primary purpose is to assist the family in undertaking the required role changes. Creating a relaxed atmosphere for the client, although beneficial, is not the main objective in this situation.
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