NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. A parent of a young child says, 'I'm so upset! The doctor prescribed an antidepressant!' Which response is best?
- A. Tell me more about what's bothering you.'
- B. Weren't you told about the need for the medication?'
- C. I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.'
- D. 'Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response in this situation is to express empathy and encourage the parent to share more about their concerns. Option A ('Tell me more about what's bothering you.') allows the nurse to show understanding and gather more information to address the parent's distress effectively. Option B ('Weren't you told about the need for the medication?') is confrontational and may make the parent defensive, hindering effective communication. Option C ('I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.') is premature; the nurse should first assess the parent's feelings before deciding on further actions. Option D ('Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.') assumes without clarification, which is not appropriate; the nurse should validate the prescription before suggesting alternative reasons.
2. Which characteristic usually results in a behavior being viewed and accepted as normal?
- A. Fits within standards accepted by one's society
- B. Helps the person reduce the need for coping skills
- C. Allows the person to express feelings and thoughts
- D. Facilitates achievement of short-term and long-term goals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Behaviors that align with the standards accepted by a society are generally viewed as normal. Societal norms and values play a significant role in defining what is considered normal behavior. Choices B, C, and D may be important aspects of an individual's functioning, but they do not solely determine whether a behavior is viewed as normal. Coping skills, expressions of feelings, and goal achievement can vary in their cultural context and societal acceptance, therefore they are not definitive indicators of normalcy.
3. Which source of stress would the nurse anticipate in a 5-year-old client?
- A. Jealousy
- B. Stubbornness
- C. Procrastination
- D. Companionship
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Procrastination, which refers to delaying completing chores or activities, is a common source of stress for 5-year-old clients. At this age, children may start experiencing stress related to the pressure of tasks or expectations. Jealousy and stubbornness are more typical sources of stress for 3- and 4-year-old clients who are still developing social and emotional skills. Companionship, on the other hand, is generally seen as a positive aspect in a child's life and is not typically a source of stress but rather a source of support and comfort.
4. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
- B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
- C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.
5. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?
- A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
- B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
- C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
- D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.
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