Nursing Elites

1. A parent of a young child says, 'I’m so upset! The doctor prescribed an antidepressant!' Which response is best?

• A. 'Tell me more about what’s bothering you.'
• B. 'Weren’t you told about the need for the medication?'
• C. 'I’ll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.'
• D. 'Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.'

Correct answer: 'Tell me more about what’s bothering you.'

Rationale: The best response in this situation is to express empathy and encourage the parent to share more about their concerns. Option A ('Tell me more about what’s bothering you.') allows the nurse to show understanding and gather more information to address the parent's distress effectively. Option B ('Weren’t you told about the need for the medication?') is confrontational and may make the parent defensive, hindering effective communication. Option C ('I’ll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.') is premature; the nurse should first assess the parent's feelings before deciding on further actions. Option D ('Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.') assumes without clarification, which is not appropriate; the nurse should validate the prescription before suggesting alternative reasons.

2. The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?

• A. Perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.
• B. Decrease the client's fluid intake to prevent diarrhea.
• C. Massage the client's legs to reduce embolism occurrence.
• D. Turn the client from side to back every shift.

Correct answer: Perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.

Rationale: Performing range-of-motion exercises is beneficial in reducing contractures around joints, maintaining joint mobility, and preventing stiffness in immobile clients. This intervention helps preserve muscle strength and joint function. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because: Option B suggesting decreasing fluid intake to prevent diarrhea is not relevant to preventing complications of immobility and could lead to dehydration; Option C, massaging the client's legs to reduce embolism occurrence, is not a recommended practice as massage can dislodge blood clots and increase the risk of embolism; Option D, turning the client from side to back every shift, is not sufficient as it does not address the need for maintaining joint mobility and preventing contractures in immobile clients.

3. A client states that she is angry and feels rejected by her boyfriend. Which action would the nurse encourage?

• A. Call the boyfriend to work things out.
• B. Avoid confronting the boyfriend.
• C. Date new people whenever possible.
• D. Learn to constructively vent anger.

Correct answer: Learn to constructively vent anger.

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to learn to constructively vent anger. Coping mechanisms, such as venting anger, can help the client address feelings of rejection. Calling the boyfriend to work things out is offering unsolicited advice and may not be effective in managing emotions. Avoiding confronting the boyfriend may reduce anxiety temporarily but will not assist in resolving the underlying issues. Encouraging the client to date new people whenever possible is not appropriate at this stage, as it is essential for the client to work through the current crisis before considering new relationships.

4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: Meperidine

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

5. What action would be most appropriate for the nurse to minimize agitation in a disturbed client?

• A. Ensure minimal staff contact.
• B. Increase environmental sensory stimulation.
• C. Limit unnecessary interactions with the client.
• D. Discuss reasons for the client’s suspicions.

Correct answer: Limit unnecessary interactions with the client.

Rationale: The most appropriate action to minimize agitation in a disturbed client is to limit unnecessary interactions. This approach helps reduce stimulation, thus decreasing agitation. Constant staff contact can lead to increased stimulation and agitation. Increasing environmental sensory stimulation can overwhelm the client's senses and escalate agitation. Discussing suspicions may not be beneficial as not all disturbed clients are suspicious and the client may not be in a state to engage in such discussions effectively.

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