the parent of a young child says im so upset the doctor prescribed an antidepressant which response is best
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. A parent of a young child says, 'I'm so upset! The doctor prescribed an antidepressant!' Which response is best?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this situation is to express empathy and encourage the parent to share more about their concerns. Option A ('Tell me more about what's bothering you.') allows the nurse to show understanding and gather more information to address the parent's distress effectively. Option B ('Weren't you told about the need for the medication?') is confrontational and may make the parent defensive, hindering effective communication. Option C ('I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.') is premature; the nurse should first assess the parent's feelings before deciding on further actions. Option D ('Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.') assumes without clarification, which is not appropriate; the nurse should validate the prescription before suggesting alternative reasons.

2. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.

3. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Option D is the best response as it allows the client to express her specific concerns, providing the nurse with valuable assessment data. This open-ended question encourages the client to share her worries and feelings, which can guide the nurse in addressing her unique needs. Options A and B make assumptions about the client's concerns based on her weight, potentially invalidating her feelings and inhibiting effective communication. Option C is premature as understanding the client's concerns should precede discussions about the frequency of sexual intercourse, which may not address the core issues the client is facing.

4. Which characteristic is associated with anorexia nervosa?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals with anorexia nervosa often exhibit perfectionistic traits, characterized by rigid standards and extreme self-discipline as a way to maintain control and fulfill personal and societal expectations. The focus on achieving an ideal body image through strict dietary habits and excessive exercise is a common manifestation of this perfectionism. The incorrect choices are: A) 'Manic' is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; individuals with this disorder are more likely to experience anxiety and depression. B) 'Rebellious' does not align with the usual behavior seen in individuals with anorexia nervosa, who tend to comply with societal expectations rather than rebel against them. C) 'Hypoactive' does not describe the characteristic behavior of individuals with anorexia nervosa, who often engage in excessive physical activity as a means of weight loss.

5. Jerry is a 55-year-old veteran who has been admitted after a motor vehicle accident with multiple injuries. His friend reported that he had been using synthetic marijuana prior to the accident, and that he also sees a psychiatrist at the VA hospital for an unknown diagnosis. He stated that Jerry sometimes gets "hyper"? for no reason, starts "ranting"? and becomes violent. Of the following, which general psychiatric disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bipolar disorder is characterized by a pattern of aggression or violence that includes irritability, agitation, and violent behavior during manic or psychotic episodes. This disorder is highly co-morbid with substance use, which can worsen the prognosis. While schizophrenia may involve aggression, it is not typically associated with mood episodes like mania that characterize bipolar disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is primarily characterized by re-experiencing traumatic events, avoidance behaviors, and hyperarousal, but not the distinct mood episodes seen in bipolar disorder. Delusional disorder is characterized by fixed false beliefs without the mood changes seen in bipolar disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is Bipolar disorder.

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