a patients urine tests positive for glucose the doctor asks you to conirm this inding which of the following would best conirm this inding
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Predictor Exam

1. A patient's urine tests positive for glucose. The doctor asks you to confirm this finding. Which of the following would BEST confirm this finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To confirm glucosuria, the most appropriate method is to run a Clinitest. Clinitest tablets are specifically designed to detect glucose in urine samples. This test is particularly useful when the urine is discolored, making it challenging to accurately assess the color change.\n Choice A, using a hand-held glucometer, is not the standard method for confirming glucose in urine; these devices are primarily used for blood glucose monitoring.\n Choice B, having another Medical Assistant perform a repeat dipstick test, may not provide a more definitive confirmation as dipstick tests can sometimes yield false positives or be less accurate compared to other methods like the Clinitest.\n Choice D, running an Acetest, is used to detect ketones in the urine, not glucose. Ketones are typically associated with conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis, which is different from glucosuria.

2. Who should be members of a patient care conference?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient care conference, it is essential to have all members of the healthcare team present to ensure comprehensive and coordinated care. Including the patient or resident, along with their family members if desired, is crucial as they are the focus of care. Choice A is incorrect because it excludes other important members of the healthcare team. Choice B is partially correct as it includes the patient and/or family members but does not encompass the entire healthcare team. Choice C is too broad and does not specifically address the inclusion of the patient or resident. The correct answer, Choice D, includes all healthcare team members and the patient/resident, ensuring a holistic approach to patient-centered care.

3. During a general survey of a patient, which finding is considered normal?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A body mass index (BMI) of 20 is considered normal as the range for a normal BMI is between 19-24. When standing, a patient's base should be wide for stability and proper weight distribution. An older appearance than the stated age may indicate a history of chronic illness or chronic alcoholism. In a general survey, the patient's arm span (fingertip to fingertip) should approximately equal the patient's height. An arm span greater than the height may suggest Marfan syndrome. Therefore, the correct choice is a normal BMI of 20, which falls within the healthy range. Choices B, C, and D all describe abnormal findings that may indicate underlying health conditions or syndromes.

4. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

5. A 70-year-old man has a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg in a lying position, 130/80 mm Hg in a sitting position, and 100/60 mm Hg in a standing position. How should the nurse evaluate these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.' Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic pressure of ³20 mm Hg or ³10 mm Hg drop in diastolic pressure that occurs with a quick change to a standing position. This condition is common in individuals on prolonged bed rest, older adults, those with hypovolemia, or taking specific medications. The blood pressure readings provided in the question (150/90 mm Hg lying, 130/80 mm Hg sitting, and 100/60 mm Hg standing) demonstrate a significant change in blood pressure with position changes, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the readings do not indicate a normal response or blood pressure within normal limits for the patient's age; rather, they suggest the presence of orthostatic hypotension.

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