Nursing Elites

1. What is the anatomic structure located in the middle of the heart that separates the right and left ventricles?

• A. Septum
• B. Sputum
• C. Separator
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the septum. The septum is a structure located in the middle of the heart that separates the right and left ventricles. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the separation between the two ventricles to ensure efficient blood flow. The other choices, 'Sputum' and 'Separator,' are incorrect as they do not refer to the anatomic structure in the heart that serves this specific function. 'Sputum' is a term used to describe phlegm or mucus, not an anatomical structure, and 'Separator' is a generic term that does not specifically identify the cardiac structure mentioned in the question.

2. A registered nurse who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?

• A. A middle-aged client who says, "I took too many diet pills"? and "my heart feels like it is racing out of my chest."?
• B. A young adult who says, "I hear songs from heaven. I need money for beer. I quit drinking two (2) days ago for my family. Why are my arms and legs jerking?"?
• C. An adolescent who has been on pain medications for terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding of pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11.
• D. An elderly client who reports having taken a "large crack hit"? 10 minutes prior to walking into the emergency room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assigning a floated nurse from another unit to a client in the emergency department, the goal is to choose a patient with minimal anticipated immediate complications. In this scenario, the adolescent with terminal cancer who has been on pain medications and presents with pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11 is the most stable option. These assessment findings indicate opioid toxicity, which, while serious, has the least risk of immediate complications compared to the other clients. Choice A involves a middle-aged client experiencing symptoms of possible cardiac issues due to diet pill overdose, which requires urgent intervention. Choice B presents a young adult with concerning symptoms of potential psychosis or substance withdrawal, requiring immediate attention. Choice D involves an elderly client who recently used crack, posing a high-risk situation that requires prompt evaluation and intervention. Therefore, the correct choice is the adolescent with opioid toxicity, as this client has the least immediate risk of complications among the options provided.

3. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?

• A. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain
• B. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia
• C. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C)
• D. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing patient assessments, the nurse should address the patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an elevated oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C) first. This presentation suggests a potential infection, which is critical to address promptly in a patient with liver disease. An infection in a patient with cirrhosis can quickly progress to severe complications. The other options, such as chronic pancreatitis with abdominal pain, compensated cirrhosis with anorexia, and post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy with shoulder pain, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation requiring urgent assessment compared to a possible infection in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites.

4. A 70-year-old man has a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg in a lying position, 130/80 mm Hg in a sitting position, and 100/60 mm Hg in a standing position. How should the nurse evaluate these findings?

• A. These readings are a normal response and attributable to changes in the patient's position.
• B. The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.
• C. The blood pressure reading in the lying position is within normal limits.
• D. The change in blood pressure readings is considered within normal limits for the patient's age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.' Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic pressure of �20 mm Hg or �10 mm Hg drop in diastolic pressure that occurs with a quick change to a standing position. This condition is common in individuals on prolonged bed rest, older adults, those with hypovolemia, or taking specific medications. The blood pressure readings provided in the question (150/90 mm Hg lying, 130/80 mm Hg sitting, and 100/60 mm Hg standing) demonstrate a significant change in blood pressure with position changes, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the readings do not indicate a normal response or blood pressure within normal limits for the patient's age; rather, they suggest the presence of orthostatic hypotension.

5. A 60-year-old patient has been treated for pneumonia for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seen today in the clinic for an unexplained weight loss of 10 pounds over the last 6 weeks. Which is an appropriate rationale for this patient's weight loss?

• A. Chronic diseases such as hypertension do not usually cause weight loss.
• B. Weight loss is more likely due to underlying medical conditions than unhealthy eating habits.
• C. Unexplained weight loss often accompanies short-term illnesses.
• D. Weight loss is not typically caused by mental health dysfunctions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Unexplained weight loss in a patient with pneumonia could indicate an underlying short-term illness or a chronic condition like endocrine disease, malignancy, depression, anorexia nervosa, or bulimia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with weight loss; it usually leads to weight gain due to fluid retention. Unhealthy eating habits are less likely to explain significant unexplained weight loss over a short period. Mental health dysfunctions can affect appetite but are not typically primary causes of significant unexplained weight loss.

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