NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A patient's chart indicates a history of ketoacidosis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Extreme Thirst
- C. Weight gain
- D. Acetone breath smell
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute ketoacidosis, a patient typically experiences rapid weight loss due to the body burning fat and muscle for energy in the absence of sufficient insulin. Therefore, weight gain would not be expected. Vomiting may occur due to the metabolic disturbances associated with ketoacidosis. Extreme thirst is a common symptom as the body tries to compensate for dehydration. Acetone breath smell is a classic sign of ketoacidosis as acetone is one of the ketones produced during this condition.
2. A patient who has a right-sided chest tube following a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the collection device. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Document the presence of continuous bubbling.
- B. Notify the surgeon of a possible pneumothorax.
- C. Take no further action with the collection device.
- D. Adjust the dial on the wall regulator to decrease suction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the chest tube collection device is an expected finding and indicates that the suction control chamber is connected to suction. It does not necessarily indicate a large air leak, which would be detected in the water-seal chamber. There is no evidence to suggest a pneumothorax based solely on continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber. Adjusting the suction level by changing the wall regulator setting is not indicated in this situation, as the amount of suction applied is primarily regulated by the water level in the water-seal chamber and not by the vacuum source. Therefore, the most appropriate action in this scenario is for the nurse to take no further action with the collection device.
3. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?
- A. The patient reports no chest pain.
- B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
- C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
- D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.
4. When caring for an asthmatic patient with an early-phase reaction, which of the following is indicative of an early-phase reaction?
- A. Rapid bronchospasms
- B. Inflammatory epithelial lesions
- C. Increased secretions
- D. Increased mucosal edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rapid bronchospasms are a symptom of an early-phase reaction in an asthmatic patient. During the early phase, bronchospasms occur due to immediate hypersensitivity reactions. Inflammatory epithelial lesions, increased secretions, and increased mucosal edema are typically seen in late-phase reactions as part of the inflammatory response that occurs later. Therefore, rapid bronchospasms are most indicative of an early-phase reaction.
5. A patient presents to the office with a pencil that has completely penetrated the palm of her hand. Which of the following treatments would be BEST in this situation?
- A. Assist the doctor while he sedates the patient and removes the pencil from her hand.
- B. Have the patient gently pull the pencil out of her hand and assist the physician with stitches.
- C. Wrap a gauze around the pencil, securing it as much as possible until the patient can get to a local emergency room.
- D. Tell the patient to go to the local emergency room. With a doctor's order, give the patient some aspirin for the pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Penetrating wounds that leave an object behind may have damaged important blood vessels. Removing the object may lead to significant bleeding. The correct approach is to gently wrap the wound with the object in place to help control bleeding and prevent further injury. The patient should be taken promptly to the nearest emergency room where healthcare professionals can safely and appropriately remove the object and provide necessary treatment. Choice A is incorrect because removing the pencil without proper medical evaluation can worsen the injury. Choice B is incorrect because pulling out the object can cause additional damage and bleeding. Choice D is incorrect because giving aspirin without knowing the extent of the injury and causing potential drug interactions can be harmful.
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