NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
- A. Blood sugar check
- B. CT scan
- C. Blood cultures
- D. Arterial blood gases
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.
2. A client is found unresponsive in his room by a nurse. The client is not breathing and does not have a pulse. After calling for help, what is the next action the nurse should take?
- A. Administer 2 ventilations
- B. Perform a head-tilt, chin lift to open the airway
- C. Begin chest compressions
- D. Perform a jaw thrust to open the airway
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After finding an unresponsive client who is not breathing and has no pulse, the nurse's immediate action should be to call for help and start chest compressions. Chest compressions should be initiated at a rate of at least 100 per minute and a depth of at least 2 inches. Choice A, administering ventilations, is not the initial step as compressions take priority. Choice B, performing a head-tilt, chin lift, is also not the first step; chest compressions are crucial before airway management. Choice D, performing a jaw thrust, is typically used in cases of suspected cervical spine injury and is not the immediate action in this scenario.
3. After hydrostatic reduction for intussusception, what client response should the nurse expect to observe?
- A. Abdominal distension
- B. Currant jelly-like stools
- C. Severe, colicky-type pain with vomiting
- D. Passage of barium or water-soluble contrast with stools
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After hydrostatic reduction for intussusception, the nurse should observe the passage of barium or water-soluble contrast with stools. This indicates a successful reduction of the telescoped bowel segment. Abdominal distension and currant jelly-like stools are clinical manifestations of intussusception, not expected outcomes following hydrostatic reduction. Severe, colicky-type pain with vomiting suggests an unresolved gastrointestinal issue, not a successful reduction of intussusception.
4. A client is brought into the emergency room where the physician suspects that he has cardiac tamponade. Based on this diagnosis, the nurse would expect to see which of the following signs or symptoms in this client?
- A. Fever, fatigue, malaise
- B. Hypotension and distended neck veins
- C. Cough and hemoptysis
- D. Numbness and tingling in the extremities
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cardiac tamponade occurs when fluid or blood accumulates in the pericardium, preventing the heart from contracting properly. This leads to decreased cardiac output and is considered a medical emergency. Classic signs of cardiac tamponade include hypotension (low blood pressure) and distended neck veins due to the increased pressure around the heart. These signs result from the compromised ability of the heart to pump effectively. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with cardiac tamponade. Fever, fatigue, and malaise are non-specific symptoms that can be seen in various conditions. Cough and hemoptysis are more commonly associated with respiratory conditions, while numbness and tingling in the extremities are neurological symptoms not typically seen in cardiac tamponade.
5. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse assesses the patient for mental status changes. What is the rationale for this intervention?
- A. Decreased cardiac output can cause hypoxia to the brain
- B. Mental status changes may be a side effect of the patient's medication
- C. Mitral regurgitation is a complication associated with some neurological disorders
- D. The patient may be confused about his diagnosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When caring for a patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output, assessing for mental status changes is crucial. Decreased cardiac output can lead to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs, including the brain, resulting in hypoxia. This hypoxia can manifest as mental status changes such as confusion, restlessness, or lethargy. Therefore, monitoring mental status helps in identifying potential hypoxic states and guiding appropriate interventions. The other options are incorrect as they do not directly correlate decreased cardiac output with potential hypoxia-induced mental status changes.
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