Nursing Elites

1. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

• A. Blood sugar check
• B. CT scan
• C. Blood cultures
• D. Arterial blood gases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.

2. The nurse is assessing an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Unequal leg length
• B. Limited adduction
• C. Diminished femoral pulses
• D. Symmetrical gluteal folds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), one of the key findings is unequal leg length. This occurs due to the dislocation of the hip joint, where the ball is loose in the socket. Limited adduction, the inability to bring the hip and knee towards the midline of the body, is also a common finding in DDH. Diminished femoral pulses are not typically associated with DDH, as it primarily affects the skeletal structure rather than vascular supply. Symmetrical gluteal folds are normal in infants and do not indicate DDH, as asymmetry in gluteal folds can be a sign of hip dislocation.

3. The nurse is caring for a newborn infant after surgical intervention for imperforate anus. The nurse should place the infant in which position in the postoperative period?

• A. Supine with no head elevation
• B. Side-lying with the legs flexed
• C. Side-lying with the legs extended
• D. Supine with the head elevated 30 degrees

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After surgical intervention for imperforate anus, the infant should be placed in a side-lying position with the legs flexed. This position helps reduce edema and pressure on the surgical site, preventing strain and promoting comfort. Placing the infant supine with no head elevation (Choice A) doesn't offer adequate support and may increase pressure on the area. Side-lying with the legs extended (Choice C) doesn't help reduce edema and pressure effectively. Placing the infant supine with the head elevated 30 degrees (Choice D) isn't recommended as it may not provide adequate support and comfort needed for recovery.

4. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent remarks, 'We just don't know how he caught the disease!' The nurse's response is based on an understanding that

• A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules
• B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps
• C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections
• D. It is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is generally considered an immune-complex disease in response to a previous B-hemolytic streptococcal infection, typically occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is not an infectious disease but a noninfectious renal condition. Therefore, the parent's belief that the child 'caught' the disease is inaccurate. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a direct streptococcal infection involving the kidney tubules but an immune response to a prior streptococcal infection. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections but with a previous streptococcal infection.

5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?

• A. Oculogyric crisis
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.

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