a patients body temperature has varied over the last 24 hours from 976 degrees f in the morning to 99 degrees f in the evening the patient is worried a patients body temperature has varied over the last 24 hours from 976 degrees f in the morning to 99 degrees f in the evening the patient is worried
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NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank

1. A patient's body temperature has varied over the last 24 hours from 97.6 degrees F in the morning to 99 degrees F in the evening. The patient is worried that this change in temperature may indicate the beginning of a fever. Which of the following BEST explains this phenomenon?

Correct answer: B: The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm.

Rationale: The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm. Diurnal rhythm is the phenomenon of body temperature fluctuating depending on the time of day. Temperatures taken in the morning are typically lower than those taken throughout the rest of the day. Choice A is incorrect because a single elevated temperature reading in the evening does not definitively indicate a fever. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication of incorrect temperature measurement. Choice D is incorrect as the temperature changes are not related to monthly hormones but rather to the body's natural daily rhythm.

2. The healthcare professional in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the healthcare professional finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?

Correct answer: Start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm

Rationale: The priority intervention in this scenario is to start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm. The patient's low blood pressure (95/60) and elevated pulse rate (110 beats per minute) indicate a potential hemorrhage, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. Starting a large-bore IV will allow for rapid administration of fluids to stabilize the patient's condition. Asking for a stool sample, preparing to insert an NG tube, or administering morphine sulfate should not take precedence over addressing the hemodynamic instability and potential hemorrhage observed in the patient. These actions may be considered later in the patient's care, but the primary focus should be on addressing the critical issue of fluid replacement and stabilization.

3. When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, which action should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: Turn off the intermittent suction device

Rationale: When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, the nurse should first turn off the intermittent suction device. This step is crucial to prevent the medications from being immediately suctioned out before they can be absorbed. Clamping the nasogastric tube is not the initial action because it may cause pressure buildup and lead to complications. Confirming the placement of the tube is important but should not be the first step in this scenario. Using a syringe to instill the medications comes after ensuring the suction is turned off to enable proper administration and absorption of the medications.

4. A client with expressive aphasia is pointing wildly at the bath water but unable to speak. Which response from the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct answer: Is something wrong with the bath water?

Rationale: A client with expressive aphasia faces difficulty expressing themselves verbally but can understand others. In this scenario, the client's gestures indicate a communication attempt. The nurse's best response is to directly address the potential issue the client is indicating, which is the bath water. Option A acknowledges the client's non-verbal communication and seeks to address their concern. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's attempt to communicate about the bath water, which is the focal point of the interaction.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. The oncologist uses the TNM staging system to classify this case as T2, N2, M0. The nurse understands that TNM stands for:

Correct answer: Tumor, Node Involvement, Metastasis

Rationale: The TNM staging system is a classification system for determining the size and extent of cancerous tissue. The TNM system helps providers to identify the most accurate forms of treatment. The T stands for tumor, the N stands for node involvement, and the M stands for metastasis. Choice A, 'Tumor, Necrosis, Metastasis,' is incorrect because it does not include the node involvement component. Choice B, 'Tumor, Node Involvement, Mastectomy,' is incorrect as it erroneously includes the treatment approach 'Mastectomy' instead of 'Metastasis.' Choice D, 'Therapy, Necrosis, Metastasis,' is incorrect because it includes 'Therapy' instead of the correct component 'Node Involvement.'

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