Nursing Elites

1. A 70-year-old man has a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg in a lying position, 130/80 mm Hg in a sitting position, and 100/60 mm Hg in a standing position. How should the nurse evaluate these findings?

• A. These readings are a normal response and attributable to changes in the patient's position.
• B. The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.
• C. The blood pressure reading in the lying position is within normal limits.
• D. The change in blood pressure readings is considered within normal limits for the patient's age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.' Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic pressure of ³20 mm Hg or ³10 mm Hg drop in diastolic pressure that occurs with a quick change to a standing position. This condition is common in individuals on prolonged bed rest, older adults, those with hypovolemia, or taking specific medications. The blood pressure readings provided in the question (150/90 mm Hg lying, 130/80 mm Hg sitting, and 100/60 mm Hg standing) demonstrate a significant change in blood pressure with position changes, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the readings do not indicate a normal response or blood pressure within normal limits for the patient's age; rather, they suggest the presence of orthostatic hypotension.

2. For a patient who is blood type AB, which blood product can they receive?

• A. Plasma from a type B donor
• B. Whole blood from a type A donor
• C. Packed RBCs from a type O donor
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A patient with blood type AB has AB antigens on their red blood cells. This means they can only receive blood products that are compatible with these antigens. Choice A is incorrect because an AB patient cannot receive plasma from a type B donor due to the antibodies present in type B plasma. Choice B is incorrect because an AB patient cannot receive whole blood from a type A donor as it contains incompatible antigens. Choice C is the correct answer because an AB patient can receive packed RBCs from a type O donor. Type O donors have no A or B antigens, making their blood compatible for transfusion to recipients with any blood type. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect, and the correct choice is C.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of platelets to a client. Which of the following actions must the healthcare professional perform before giving the platelets?

• A. Start an IV of 0.9% Normal Saline to administer with the platelets
• B. Ensure the container with the platelets is intact and not damaged
• C. Verify the client's identity using two unique identifiers
• D. Check the client's chart to ensure no contraindications to platelet transfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering platelets, it is crucial to check the integrity of the container holding the blood product. An intact container ensures the sterility and safety of the platelets, minimizing the risk of contamination or infection. Option A is incorrect as administering platelets typically does not require starting a new IV line unless indicated for the specific patient. Option C is not the priority as verifying the client's identity can be done at any point during the administration process but is not specific to the platelet transfusion itself. Option D, checking the client's chart for antibiotic use, is not directly related to ensuring the safety of the blood product container.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. A client on the nursing unit is terminally ill but remains alert and oriented. Three days after admission, the nurse observes signs of depression. The client states, 'I'm tired of being sick. I wish I could end it all.' What is the most accurate and informative way to record this data in a nursing progress note?

• A. Client appears to be depressed, possibly suicidal
• B. Client reports being tired of being ill and wants to die
• C. Client does not want to live any longer and is tired of being ill
• D. Client states, 'I'm tired of being sick. I wish I could end it all.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Subjective data includes thoughts, beliefs, feelings, perceptions, and sensations that are apparent only to the person affected and cannot be measured, seen, or felt by the nurse. This information should be documented using the client's exact words in quotes. The other options indicate that the nurse has drawn the conclusion that the client no longer wishes to live. From the data provided, the cues do not support this assumption. A more complete assessment should be conducted to determine if the client is suicidal.

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