Nursing Elites

1. A 70-year-old man has a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg in a lying position, 130/80 mm Hg in a sitting position, and 100/60 mm Hg in a standing position. How should the nurse evaluate these findings?

• A. These readings are a normal response and attributable to changes in the patient's position.
• B. The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.
• C. The blood pressure reading in the lying position is within normal limits.
• D. The change in blood pressure readings is considered within normal limits for the patient's age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.' Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic pressure of �20 mm Hg or �10 mm Hg drop in diastolic pressure that occurs with a quick change to a standing position. This condition is common in individuals on prolonged bed rest, older adults, those with hypovolemia, or taking specific medications. The blood pressure readings provided in the question (150/90 mm Hg lying, 130/80 mm Hg sitting, and 100/60 mm Hg standing) demonstrate a significant change in blood pressure with position changes, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the readings do not indicate a normal response or blood pressure within normal limits for the patient's age; rather, they suggest the presence of orthostatic hypotension.

2. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

• A. Vitamin C
• B. Vitamin D
• C. Vitamin B-6
• D. Riboflavin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin D. Fat-soluble vitamins are those that can be stored in the body, allowing excess amounts to be stored for later use. While this storage ability can help prevent deficiencies, it also poses a risk of toxicity. The fat-soluble vitamins are A, E, D, and K. Choice A, Vitamin C, is water-soluble, not fat-soluble. Choice C, Vitamin B-6, and Choice D, Riboflavin, are also water-soluble vitamins and not fat-soluble.

3. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

4. The nurse is reviewing percussion techniques with a new graduate nurse. Which action performed by the graduate nurse while percussing requires the nurse to intervene?

• A. Percussing twice over each area
• B. Striking with the fingertip, not the finger pad
• C. Using the wrist to make the strikes, not the arm
• D. Quickly lifting the striking finger after each stroke

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to percuss twice over each area, not once. This technique helps ensure a more accurate assessment. Striking with the fingertip instead of the finger pad is correct because the tip of the finger produces clearer sounds. Using the wrist to make the strikes instead of the arm is appropriate as it allows for more controlled and precise percussion. Quickly lifting the striking finger after each stroke is also correct to prevent damping off vibrations. Therefore, percussing once over each area (Choice A) is incorrect as it does not follow the standard percussion technique.

5. Which of these is a correctly stated outcome goal written by the nurse?

• A. The client will walk 2 miles daily by March 19
• B. The client will understand how to give insulin by discharge
• C. The client will regain their former state of health by April 1
• D. The client achieve desired mobility by May 7

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Outcome goals should be SMART, i.e., Specific, Measurable, Appropriate, Realistic, and Timely. Option A is the only outcome that has a specific behavior (walks daily), with measurable performance criteria (2 miles), and a time estimate for goal attainment (by March 19). Option B lacks specificity in terms of what 'understand how to give insulin' entails, and the timeline is vague ('by discharge'). Option C is not measurable or specific about what 'regain their former state of health' means. Option D does not provide a specific behavior or measurable criteria for 'desired mobility,' and the timeline is the only element that is time-bound.

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