Nursing Elites

1. A 70-year-old man has a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg in a lying position, 130/80 mm Hg in a sitting position, and 100/60 mm Hg in a standing position. How should the nurse evaluate these findings?

• A. These readings are a normal response and attributable to changes in the patient's position.
• B. The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.
• C. The blood pressure reading in the lying position is within normal limits.
• D. The change in blood pressure readings is considered within normal limits for the patient's age.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The change in blood pressure readings is called orthostatic hypotension.' Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic pressure of �20 mm Hg or �10 mm Hg drop in diastolic pressure that occurs with a quick change to a standing position. This condition is common in individuals on prolonged bed rest, older adults, those with hypovolemia, or taking specific medications. The blood pressure readings provided in the question (150/90 mm Hg lying, 130/80 mm Hg sitting, and 100/60 mm Hg standing) demonstrate a significant change in blood pressure with position changes, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the readings do not indicate a normal response or blood pressure within normal limits for the patient's age; rather, they suggest the presence of orthostatic hypotension.

2. Your patient had a stroke, or CVA, five years ago. The resident still has right-sided weakness. You are ready to transfer the resident from the bed to the wheelchair. The wheelchair should be positioned at the _____________.

• A. head of the bed on the patient's right side
• B. head of the bed on the patient's left side
• C. bottom of the bed on the patient's right side
• D. bottom of the bed on the patient's left side

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The wheelchair should be positioned at the head of the bed on the resident's left side. This positioning allows the resident to use their stronger left side to assist with the transfer, compensating for the right-sided weakness. Placing the wheelchair at the head of the bed on the patient's right side (Choice A) would not utilize the stronger left side, which is crucial for the transfer. Similarly, positioning the wheelchair at the bottom of the bed on either side (Choices C and D) would not facilitate optimal assistance from the resident's stronger side during the transfer process.

3. When performing an EKG, the patient starts to laugh out of feelings of anxiety. What would you expect the EKG to show? (Choose the BEST answer.)

• A. Increased pulse rate, normal EKG
• B. Decreased pulse rate, abnormal EKG
• C. Tachycardia, poor EKG graph
• D. Bradycardia, poor EKG graph

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient laughs due to anxiety during an EKG, it is likely to cause tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rate. This increased heart rate can lead to poor EKG graph quality as the electrical signals from large moving muscles can interfere with data collection from the chest leads. Therefore, in this scenario, the EKG is expected to show tachycardia with poor graph quality. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a patient laughing out of anxiety is more likely to result in an increased pulse rate (tachycardia) rather than a decreased pulse rate (bradycardia) or a normal EKG.

4. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

• A. Vitamin C
• B. Vitamin D
• C. Vitamin B-6
• D. Riboflavin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin D. Fat-soluble vitamins are those that can be stored in the body, allowing excess amounts to be stored for later use. While this storage ability can help prevent deficiencies, it also poses a risk of toxicity. The fat-soluble vitamins are A, E, D, and K. Choice A, Vitamin C, is water-soluble, not fat-soluble. Choice C, Vitamin B-6, and Choice D, Riboflavin, are also water-soluble vitamins and not fat-soluble.

5. Mrs. D is a pregnant client who is 33 weeks' gestation and is admitted for bright red vaginal bleeding. Her physician suspects placenta previa. All of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for this client except:

• A. Institute complete bed rest for the client
• B. Assess uterine tone to determine condition
• C. Perform a vaginal exam to assess cervical dilation
• D. Measure and record blood loss each shift

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client with placenta previa has part of the placenta covering some or all of the cervical opening. Performing a vaginal exam for placenta previa may cause significant bleeding and should be avoided unless directed by a physician, and preparations are made for emergency delivery. **Choice A** is correct as complete bed rest is essential to decrease the risk of further bleeding. **Choice B** is appropriate as assessing uterine tone helps in determining the condition of the uterus and can provide important information for the healthcare team. **Choice D** is also a necessary intervention as monitoring and recording blood loss is crucial in assessing the client's condition and response to treatment.

Similar Questions