Nursing Elites

1. The patient who has two fractured ribs from an automobile accident is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the patient indicates effective teaching?

• A. I am going to buy a rib binder to wear during the day.
• B. I can take shallow breaths to prevent my chest from hurting.
• C. I should plan on taking the pain pills only at bedtime so I can sleep.
• D. I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day.' After sustaining rib fractures, it is crucial to prevent complications like atelectasis and pneumonia by practicing deep breathing and coughing. Using the incentive spirometer helps in maintaining lung expansion and preventing respiratory issues. Buying a rib binder could restrict chest expansion and hinder deep breathing efforts, increasing the risk of atelectasis. Taking shallow breaths may not effectively expand the lungs, leading to potential respiratory complications. Relying solely on pain medication at bedtime may not adequately address the need for lung expansion and prevention of respiratory complications during the day.

2. The nurse is caring for an infant with cryptorchidism. The nurse anticipates that the most likely diagnostic study to be prescribed would be the one that assesses which item?

• A. Babinski reflex
• B. DNA synthesis
• C. Urinary function
• D. Chromosomal analysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testes, may be caused by hormonal deficiency, intrinsic testicular abnormality, or a structural problem. Diagnostic studies for cryptorchidism typically involve assessing urinary function because the kidneys and testes originate from the same embryonic tissue. The Babinski reflex is a test for neurological function and is not relevant to evaluating cryptorchidism. DNA synthesis and chromosomal analysis are not commonly used diagnostic tests for cryptorchidism, as they are unrelated to the disorder's etiology or presentation.

3. A client in end-stage renal disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about potential complications associated with this procedure. All of the following are complications associated with peritoneal dialysis EXCEPT:

• A. Hypotriglyceridemia
• B. Abdominal hernia
• C. Anorexia
• D. Peritonitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peritoneal dialysis poses risks of various complications, including abdominal hernia, anorexia, peritonitis, and other issues. However, hypotriglyceridemia is not a common complication associated with peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should focus on educating the client about the risks of developing peritonitis, abdominal hernias, anorexia, low back pain, and abdominal bleeding. Monitoring triglyceride levels is essential for managing lipid disorders but is not directly linked to peritoneal dialysis complications.

4. A patient in the emergency room has a fractured left elbow and presents with an unequal radial pulse, swelling, and numbness in the left hand after waiting for 5 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Place the patient in a supine position
• B. Ask the patient to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• C. Wrap the fractured area with a snug dressing
• D. Start an IV in the other arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an IV in the other arm. In this scenario, the patient is showing signs of Acute Compartment Syndrome, a serious condition that occurs due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage. Starting an IV is crucial as the patient may require emergency surgery, such as a fasciotomy, to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications. Placing the patient in a supine position, asking about pain levels, or wrapping the fractured area, though important, are not the priority interventions in this critical situation where immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent irreversible damage or loss of limb.

5. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

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