Nursing Elites

1. The patient who has two fractured ribs from an automobile accident is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the patient indicates effective teaching?

• A. I am going to buy a rib binder to wear during the day.
• B. I can take shallow breaths to prevent my chest from hurting.
• C. I should plan on taking the pain pills only at bedtime so I can sleep.
• D. I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day.' After sustaining rib fractures, it is crucial to prevent complications like atelectasis and pneumonia by practicing deep breathing and coughing. Using the incentive spirometer helps in maintaining lung expansion and preventing respiratory issues. Buying a rib binder could restrict chest expansion and hinder deep breathing efforts, increasing the risk of atelectasis. Taking shallow breaths may not effectively expand the lungs, leading to potential respiratory complications. Relying solely on pain medication at bedtime may not adequately address the need for lung expansion and prevention of respiratory complications during the day.

2. A man has been taking lisinopril for CHF. The patient is seen in the emergency room for persistent diarrhea. The nurse is concerned about which side effect of lisinopril?

• A. Vertigo
• B. Hypotension
• C. Palpitations
• D. Nagging, dry cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor commonly used for CHF, can cause hypotension as a side effect. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, increasing the risk of hypotension in this patient. Vertigo (choice A) is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Palpitations (choice C) are not directly associated with lisinopril use. A nagging, dry cough (choice D) is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril, but in this case, the patient's presentation with persistent diarrhea would make hypotension a more immediate concern.

3. A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain of 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) whenever taking a deep breath. Which action will the nurse take next?

• A. Auscultate breath sounds.
• B. Administer PRN morphine.
• C. Have the patient cough forcefully.
• D. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's complaint of sharp pain when taking a deep breath is concerning for pleurisy or pleural effusion. The nurse should auscultate breath sounds to assess for a pleural friction rub or decreased breath sounds, which could indicate these conditions. It is crucial to gather assessment data before initiating any pain medications. Asking the patient to cough forcefully may exacerbate the pain and should be avoided until further assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be based on the assessment findings; therefore, it is premature to notify the provider without conducting a thorough assessment first.

4. A 4-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis is admitted to the hospital. The nurse identifies which client problem in the plan of care as the priority?

• A. Infection related to hypertension
• B. Injury related to loss of blood in urine
• C. Excessive fluid volume related to decreased plasma filtration
• D. Retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute glomerulonephritis, the child experiences excessive accumulation of water and retention of sodium, leading to circulatory congestion and edema. Excessive fluid volume is a primary concern due to the disease process. Hypertension and infection are not directly related to acute glomerulonephritis; therefore, they are not the priority client problems. While hematuria (blood in urine) may occur, it typically does not lead to significant injury that takes precedence over excessive fluid volume. Acute glomerulonephritis is an acute condition, not chronic; therefore, retarded growth and development related to a chronic disease is not the priority issue. With proper management, most children recover completely without long-term growth and development issues.

5. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?

• A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl
• B. Platelet count of 150,000
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.

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